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andre [41]
3 years ago
10

Why did the United States oppose the Polish government's use of martial law?

History
1 answer:
Maslowich3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The government of the Polish People's Republic drastically restricted everyday life by introducing martial law and a military junta in an attempt to counter ...

Explanation:

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Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

The day after Franklin Roosevelt took the oath of office the Nazi REICHSTAG gave ADOLF HITLER absolute control of Germany. Hitler had campaigned spewing ANTI-SEMITIC rhetoric and vowing to rebuild a strong Germany.

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The first act of European aggression was not committed by Nazi Germany. Fascist DICTATOR BENITO MUSSOLINI ordered the Italian army to invade ETHIOPIA in 1935. The League of Nations refused to act, despite the desperate pleas from Ethiopia's leader HAILE SELASSIE.

The following year Hitler and Mussolini formed the ROME-BERLIN AXIS, an alliance so named because its leaders believed that the line that connected the two capitals would be the axis around which the entire world would revolve. Later in 1936, Hitler marched troops into the Rhineland of Germany, directly breaching the TREATY OF VERSAILLES, which was signed after World War I. A few months later, Fascist GENERAL FRANCISCO FRANCO launched an attempt to overthrow the established LOYALIST government of SPAIN. Franco received generous support from Hitler and Mussolini.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
Why did the fedral government have to send troops to the south after civil war
Paladinen [302]

Troops were sent to the South to ensure that laws were followed and that another uprising did nit occur.


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The correct answers are:  

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