Answer:
no, it was johannes gutanburg from Germany
To restrict the ability of African Americans to exercise voting rights.
The black community had less access to education than whites even after slavery was ended; thus their literacy rates were lower. They also experienced much poverty because of prejudice against them in the economic system of the country, so poll taxes could keep them from going to the polls to vote. The "grandfather clauses" were exemptions granted by some states to those whose forefathers ("grandfathers") had full voting rights prior to the Civil War, so if there were poor or illiterate whites, they could vote freely while blacks (whose ancestors had been slaves) were subjected to the laws restricting their voting ability.
These sorts of restrictions against black voters prompted much of the activism of the civil rights movement that began in the middle of the 20th century.
He vetoed it for various reasons. For starters, he believed that it was a thing up to individual states and that it infringed on the states right to choose. Another reason was that he believed that such beneficial extension would not make people equal, but rather it would be racist towards the white people. His main argument, however, was that the bill would have a certain group gain rights that they are not entitled to, while a large part of the states does not even have representation in the congress, and that the congress needs to be enlarged first.
I would say a since they don't have income except social security.