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Neko [114]
2 years ago
14

Solve for x x= 4x+2 3x+24

Mathematics
1 answer:
sdas [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

x = - 8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

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Suppose that qequals30​, Lequals5​, and Kequals15 is a point on the production function qequals​f(L, ​K). Is it posssible for qe
Kamila [148]

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

If q=30​, L=5​, and K=15 is a point on the production function q=​f(L, ​K).

Production function is an equation that expresses the relationship between the quantities of factors of production used and the amount of product obtained under the assumption that the most efficient available methods of production are used.

The combination q=30​, L=5​, and K=16 cannot be a point because we assume production functions are efficient.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
29. Family income in the middle class: Bauer et al. (2011) identified the median income of a middle-class family in their sample
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

No it is not

Step-by-step explanation:

The median is 84200

The mean is 85300

Low income is 65100

High income is 103400

From this information, we can see a skewed data. The mean would not be a good estimate value. Rather the center (median) would be more appropriate.

When we calculate the middle value for this data

65100+103400 = 168500/2 = 84250

84250 is closer to the median score of 84200. The median is best in the presence of outliers.

8 0
3 years ago
Solve it............<br>​
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

1) for '8'; '3'; and '10':

8/2+3+3=10

2) for '2'; '5' and '11':

2/1+5+5=11

3) for '6'; '2' and '?':

6/2+2+2=7

8 0
3 years ago
Find the value of this expression<br> x^2-1 /x+4
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

-16

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Binomial Theorem, proof
IrinaVladis [17]

It follows from the definition of the binomial coefficient:

\dbinom nr=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

So we have

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(n+1)\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!(n-r)!}

That is, (n+1) gets absorbed into the numerator's factorial, and we introduct (r+1) into the denominator. Now, (n+1)-(r+1)=n-r, so we get

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!((n+1)-(r+1))!}=(r+1)\dbinom{n+1}{r+1}

as required.

4 0
3 years ago
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