Answer:
a. Decrease liabilities and decrease assets
Explanation:
First option "Decrease liabilities and decrease assets" is the correct option as far as only payment part of Journal entry is concerned.
Since Dividend is declared on 15 July on That date entry would have been:
Shareholder's Equity........Dr
To Dividend Payable(Liability) A/c......Cr
Then, on Payment date i.e. 15 august entry would be:
Dividend Payable(Liability)A/c.......Dr
To cash/Bank A/c..........Cr
Therefore, Liability is Decrease also asset is decreased on 15th August, 2020.
<span>This is most likely an example of a franchise opportunity. It could also be considered to be a hybrid type of franchise where the indepenent dealers have more leeway in how the business looks and how it is run. This would be a win/win for many independent dealers as the would still be making most of the local decisions.</span>
Answer:
$6 million
Explanation:
If 25% of the firm is worth $1.5 million, then 100% of the firm will be worth $6 million (= $1.5 million x 4).
This is an all equity firm, which means it has no liabilities, and it is also a closely held corporation which makes it harder for a stockholder to sell his/her shares. Basically the fair value of the 1,000 shares is the money you can get from your fellow shareholders.
Answer:
No it wont have enough money to build a warehouse in two years.
Explanation:
Firstly we are given that the warehouse is $1 million so the company needs to save this amount of money in two years time.
We know that the company has invested $500000 to date therefore we need to calculate if this $50000 per quarter investment will cover the the other portion for $500000 to meet the warehouse cost of $1 million so we will use the future value annuity formula to calculate this which is :
Fv = C[((1+i)^n -1)/i]
where Fv will be the future value after two years of the $50000 investment
C is the periodic payment of $50000
i is the interest rate per period which is 6% per quarter
n is the number of periods the payment is done here it is 4 x 2years= 8 periods / investments of $50000 that will be done.
thereafter we substitute on the above formula:
Fv = 50000[((1+6%)^8 - 1)/6%]
Fv = $494873.40
then we combine this amount to $500000 to see if it reaches $1 million
$494873.40+ $500000 = $994873.40 which is close to the warehouse cost of $1 million but it does not reach it so the company wont have enough money to purchase the warehouse.
Go to the stock market holders, or look it up online
Hope this helps!