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ser-zykov [4K]
2 years ago
7

Which is the value of this expression when p = -2 and q = -1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Pie2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Here is the ans...hope it helps:)

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Consider the reduction of the rectangle.
katrin [286]

Answer:

1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

if you divide 16.8 by 4.5 you get 3.7 now 3.7 divided 2.3 = 1.6

8 0
4 years ago
Solve the following inequality. Show your work. 2m + 6 > 7(m – 2)
otez555 [7]

Answer:

m < 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

2m + 6 > 7(m - 2) ← distribute

2m + 6 > 7m - 14 ( subtract 2m from both sides )

6 > 5m - 14 ( add 14 to both sides )

20 > 5m ( divide both sides by 5 )

4 > m , thus

m < 4

8 0
3 years ago
What is the derivative of Y=2x^3-2x^2-3x+1 with respect to x?​
umka2103 [35]

~~~~~~~~~y= 2x^3 -2x^2 -3x+1\\\\\\\implies \dfrac{dy}{dx} =\dfrac d{dx} \left( 2x^3 -2x^2 -3x +1\right)\\\\\\~~~~~~~~~~~=2 \dfrac{d}{dx}\left(x^3\right) - 2 \dfrac d{dx} \left(x^2\right) - 3 \dfrac d{dx} (x) +\dfrac{d}{dx}(1)\\ \\\\~~~~~~~~~~~=2\cdot 3x^2 -2\cdot 2x-3 +0~~~~~~~;\left [ \dfrac d{dx} x^n = nx^{n-1}\right]\\\\\\~~~~~~~~~~~=6x^2 -4x -3

\text{The derivative is}~6x^2 -4x -3

7 0
2 years ago
A women gives birth to 4 babies in her lifetime. What is the probability that she has first 3 boys and then one girl? Please hel
german

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a 50% chance of it being a boy or a girl also known as 1/2

So the first baby has a 1/2 chance, same for the second, and third, Which means that there is a 1/2, then another 1/2 and another 1/2. So you would have to multiply them all, 1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/8. For the girl, again, it is 1/2 chance of being a girl, while the other 1/2 is a boy. So 1/8*1/2 is 1/16. So the probability so the women having 3 boys then a girl, is 1/16.

Hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
Megan bought 3 tickets to the ballet for $57.50. How much would it cost for her to buy 15 tickets?
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

$287.50

I'm really good at math plus i asked google

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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