The existence of pre-tax cost of debt and post-tax cost of debt is due
to the acknoledgement of the tax benefit from issuing debt.There is no
tax benefit from paying divdends,so it makes no sense talking about
pre-tax,post-tax cost of equity for a firm.When you think about cash
flow to equity you can only assume that the taxes owed by the company
have already been paid.Now, the taxation over the income of the
shareholder is a whole different issue that does not take place in this
discussion,since it is not taken in consideration either in cost of
equity or cost of debt.
The answer to this question is practical
Practical intelligence refers to people's capability in applying the knowledges that they have into real life situation.
In this particular case, Anwar already knew the effect of clothes depending on the weather, and he apply that knowledge in order to achieve a certain desired outcome
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
Flotation costs are cost that are concerned with issuing new common stock. It is the amount of money or cost incurred by an organization when offering its securities to the public. The cost may include legal fees, auditing fees and registration fees. When the flotation cost goes higher, firms are more likely to use debts rather than preferred stock. This is simply because debt is lesser than both common stock and preferred stock. Also, its fallacy to think that preferred stock doesnt have flotation cost. Its only that its not as high as the ones for new common equity.
Answer:
Part a: According to Solow model higher per capita real GDP will be in Chile because of its highest saving rate.
Part b: The per capita capital stock or the labour ratio is the primary factor for these differences in the simple Solow model.
Explanation:
<em>Part a:</em>
According to Solow model higher per capita real GDP will be in Chile because of its highest saving rate.
In Solow model the GDP per capita is defined as
![y=k^{\alpha}=f(k)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=y%3Dk%5E%7B%5Calpha%7D%3Df%28k%29)
Also the steady state path is given as
![sf(k)=(s+n)k\\\frac{s}{s+n}=\frac{k^*}{f(k^*)}\\\frac{s}{s+n}=\frac{k^*^{\alpha-1}}{k^*}\\\frac{s}{s+n}={k^*^{\alpha-2}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=sf%28k%29%3D%28s%2Bn%29k%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Bs%7D%7Bs%2Bn%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7Bk%5E%2A%7D%7Bf%28k%5E%2A%29%7D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Bs%7D%7Bs%2Bn%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7Bk%5E%2A%5E%7B%5Calpha-1%7D%7D%7Bk%5E%2A%7D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Bs%7D%7Bs%2Bn%7D%3D%7Bk%5E%2A%5E%7B%5Calpha-2%7D%7D)
As all other parameters are same thus the country with higher value of s will have a higher per capita GDP.
According to the Solow model, higher saving rate means larger capital stock and high level of output at the steady state.
Higher saving rate leads to faster growth in Solow model. So there is higher per capita real GDP for the country that has higher saving rate.
<em>Part b:</em>
In Simple Solow Model, the steady state per Capita GDP,
is the function of the steady state per capita capital stock given as ![k^*](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=k%5E%2A)
Now this indicates that
![y^*=f(k^*)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=y%5E%2A%3Df%28k%5E%2A%29)
where f is an increasing concave function i.e. f'>0 and f''<0
Thus the sole dependence of per capita GDP is on per capita capital stock.
Thus the per capita capital stock or the labour ratio is the primary factor for these differences in the simple Solow model.