Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": lowers unit costs.
Explanation:
Traditional manufacturing is the production process by which companies produce goods part to be delivered for sale and part to have them stored in case of shortages which could increase inventory costs.
Flexible manufacturing concentrates on using technology for mass-production of products characterized to be subject to rapid market changes. <em>Flexible manufacturing saves money in labor costs, thus, lowers the unitary costs of the output.</em>
Answer:
A. $600
Explanation:
The formula and the computation of the Marginal propensity to consume are shown below:
Marginal propensity to consume = Change in consumer spending ÷ Change in disposal income
0.6 = Change in consumer spending ÷ $1,000
So, the change in consumer spending is
= $1,000 × 0.6
= $600
Hence, the consumption that is given in the question is not considered. Therefore, ignored it
Answer:
a. debit to Paid-In Capital From Treasury Stock of $155,000
Explanation:
Treasury Stock purchase 25,000 shares = $762,500
Per share value = $762,500/25,000 shares
Per share value = $30.5
Selling price of 10,000 treasury stock = $15 × 10,000 = $150,000
Purchase price of 10,000 treasury stock = $30.5 × 10,000 = $305,000
The deference between sales and purchase of treasury stock = $155,000
Therefore, option A is the answer because paid-In Capital From Treasury Stock becomes a debit due to selling the stock in low price.
Answer:
carrying value after 2 years = $967.64
Explanation:
the journal entry to record the purchase of the bond:
Dr Investment in bonds 1,000
Dr Premium on investment in bonds 41.60
Cr Cash 1,041.60
Assuming a straight line amortization, the yearly amortization = $41.60 / 9 years = $4.62 per year
carrying value at moment of purchase = $958.40
carrying value after 1 year = $963.02
carrying value after 2 years = $967.64
Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
