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n200080 [17]
2 years ago
9

a rule that assigns each value of the independent variable to exactly one value of the dependent variable?

Mathematics
1 answer:
e-lub [12.9K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Answer:- Function

please mark me as brainliest

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Bill has 15 fewer cards than joe . write an expression to find how many cards bill has... ???
Ganezh [65]
15 - 1 = x thats the answer to the problem thats how you can have the answer
6 0
3 years ago
Tickets that cost $88 for a professional women’s championship soccer game are offered at a 15% discount. What is the sale price?
RoseWind [281]

Answer:

$74.80

Step-by-step explanation:

10% = 8.8

5% = 4.4

8.8 + 4.4 = 13.2

88 - 13.2 =$74.80

6 0
3 years ago
It is a collection or set of units or
tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

Population.

Step-by-step explanation:

Population can be defined as a collection or set of units or entities from whom we got the data.

This ultimately implies that, a population is the larger set from which other units can be picked from.

Hence, a population is an entire collection of outcomes or objects from which we can obtain or collect data. For example, the number of new born babies in a hospital, a country and the total number of football players in a soccer league.

Population = Movies.

Subset (sample) = comedy movies, horror movies, romance movies, and action movies.

3 0
3 years ago
A leprechaun places a magic penny under a girl's pillow. The next night there are 2 magic pennies under her pillow. The followin
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

<u><em></em></u>

  • <u><em>32 days</em></u>

Explanation:

Simulate (build a table) the growing of the number of pennies for some nights to figure out the pattern:

First night:          1 penny = 2⁰

Second night:    1 × 2 pennies = 2¹

Third night:        2 × 2 = 2²

Fourth nigth:      2² × 2 = 2³

nth night:           2ⁿ⁻¹

You want 2ⁿ⁻¹ ≥ 2,000,000,000

Which you solve in this way:

  • 2ⁿ⁻¹  ≥ 2,000,000,000

  • 2ⁿ⁻¹ ≥ 2,000,000,000

  • n-1 log (2)  ≥ log (2,000,000,000)

  • n - 1  ≥ log (2,000,000,000) / log (2)

  • n - 1 ≥ 30.9

  • n ≥ 31.9

Since n is number of days, it is an integer number, so n ≥ 32.

Hence, she will have a total of more than $ 2 billion after 32 days.

You can prove that by calculating 2³² = 2,147,483,648.

5 0
3 years ago
Can anyone help me with this please.
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

sketch them into a graph and use the vertical-line trick. If you don't know what this is, you see if two points pass through the same verticaly. If it does than it is NOT a function. If it doesn't it IS a function

If it does theStep-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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