Answer:
16.42
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of goods sold = $548,600
Beginning inventory of the year = $31,283
Ending inventory of the year = $35,538
Now,
the Inventory turnover ratio is calculated as;
⇒ ( Cost of goods sold ) ÷ ( Average inventory of the year )
Also,
Average inventory of the year = 
= 
= $33,410.5
Therefore,
Inventory turnover ratio = $548,600 ÷ $33,410.5
= 16.42
Answer:
Explanation:
In order to earn money and produce goods that improve lives, self-directed gain would provide jobs, and subsequently wages for others.
The way people can become wealthy by their own efforts is to sell what they produce to others. As the business grows, labor is hired to produce more. This is the 'invisible hand' concept that turns self-directed gain into social and economic benefits for all.
Answer:
option B
Explanation:
Reinvestment risk refers to the possibility that potential cash flow will have to be invested in low-yielding assets, like coupons (the annual interest charges on the bond) or the eventual returns of the investment.
Reinvestment risk refers to one of financial risk's primary styles. The term is used to describe the threat of anyone canceling or stopping a particular investment, which one might need to find another place to reinvest the cash with the risk of not getting an equally attractive prospect.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that correct option is B .
Answer: D. 2.2%
Explanation: Equity Dividend Rate is calculated by dividing the Before Tax Cash Flow by the Acquisition price. If you need the answer in percentage form, you then multiply by 100.
Here, before-tax cash flow = $11,440
Acquisition price = $520,000
So Equity Dividend Rate = 
X 100
Equity Dividend Rate = 2.2%
In this question, you do not need the Net Operating Income (NOI). You only need the NOI if the Before Tax Cash Flow is not given and the debt service payment is. If this is the case, you subtract the debt service payment from the NOI to get the Before Tax Cash Flow.
(a) Discount amount = Face value - Price of t-bills = $1,000-$996 = $4
(b) Amount received at maturity = Face value = $1,000 (Note: T-bills are guaranteed and thus one of the safest investment).
(c) Current yield, R = Discount amount/Face value * 360/t, where t = 52 weeks = 360 days.
Then,
R = (4/1000)*(360/360)*100 = 0.4%
