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AlexFokin [52]
2 years ago
8

I got this question on my quiz a few weeks ago and was wondering if anyone could explain the best/correct answer.

Business
1 answer:
Anon25 [30]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Easy it's B, this is because the rate at which we earn interest with only 1000$ does not keep up with the maintenance fee.

In B u get $1010 because of the interest after the first year,

In D u get $960 because if u get an annual interest of 2% from $1000 u get a total of $1020 but deduction from maintenance fee is $60 per year, Thus $1020-$60 = $960. Same explaination for the others as well.

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How can you use spreadsheets both at home and at the office? describe the office business functions which can use electronic spr
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Jiminy’s Cricket Farm issued a bond with 30 years to maturity and a semiannual coupon rate of 6 percent 4 years ago. The bond cu
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Answer:

Explanation:

a.)

The total debt amount in Jiminy's Cricket Farm's balance sheet on the liabilities side is referred to as the book value of debt. It is calculated by be the summing up of the individual book values of the two bonds that this company has.

<u>Total book value ;</u>

Book value of 30 year bond = $60,000,000

Book value of the Zero-coupon bond = $35,000,000

Total book value of debt = $60 + $35 = $95,000,000

b.)

The sum of market values of the two bonds this company makes up the total market value of debt. It is calculated by multiplying the current price of the bond by the number of outstanding bonds.

Formula for market value = Price * number of bonds

<u>30 year bond;</u>

Number: 60,000,000/1000 = 60,000 bonds

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<u>Zero-coupon bond;</u>

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Total market value of debt = $66,000,000 + $23,450,000 = $89,450,000

c.) Companies who have debt in their capital structure benefit from tax shield on their debt interest rates . Jiminy’s Cricket Farm has two bonds, find the average of the two rates to get after tax cost of debt.

Calculate the Pretax cost of debt first. Using a financial calculator, input the following;

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N = 30*2 = 60

PV = -$66,000,000

PMT = (6%/2)* $60,000,000 = $1,800,000

FV = $60,000,000

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Convert to annual rate = 5.329% (this is the pretax cost of debt)

<u>Zero-coupon bond;</u>

N = 8

PV = -$23,450,000

PMT = 0

FV = $35,000,000

then CPT I/Y = 5.133%  (this is the pretax cost of debt)

Next, find the average pretax cost of debt =  (5.329% + 5.133%) /2 = 5.231%

After tax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt (1-tax)

After tax cost of debt = 5.231% (1-0.23) = 4.03%

5 0
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Which sentences highlight the process of rightsizing?
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