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AleksAgata [21]
2 years ago
7

If your risk aversion index a = 4, what is your optimal allocation between risky asset p ( ) and risk-free asset (1- )?

Business
1 answer:
Ganezh [65]2 years ago
5 0

10.82 is your optimal allocation between risky asset p ( ) and risk-free asset (1- ).

Expected return & Return X Probability.

:. Expected return of fund "A" B #x05+ (-5X0·3) + 20x⋅ 2 => 6 25x.5+ 10x 3+ (-25x-2)510-s LA L

Calculation of standard deviation, and correlations

1X0.5 +121X0·3+ 196X-2 872

√210.25x0.540.25x0.3 +1260.25x0·2 18.90

Co-variance. = 14.5x0.5 +5.5x0·3+ (-497×0.2) -90.5

Co-relation=-90.5 -0.55

8.72×18.90

with the use of the given formula given. Calculation of weight: -

W₁ = (6-4.25) (18.90)² - [ 10.5-4.25x1-90·5)

(6-4.25) (18.90)²+ 10.5-4.25]($.72)²=-(6-4-25+1015-4:25] × (90·5)

625-1175 + 565.625

5) 1190.7425 = 0.65 1824.3575

625.1175+ 475.24+724

1-0.65 0.35 A

7.5757 • Expected return of portfolio = 6x0.65 +10.5x0.35

Standard deviation (r) of portfolio - 18-72x0.65) + (18 · 9X8:35) 72 (8-72X0·65) (8·4x0-35 x0.55

7

10.82.

A risky asset is an asset that involves some risk. Risky assets generally refer to assets with high price volatility, such as Examples: Stocks, Commodities, High Yield Bonds, Real Estate, and Currencies.

Learn more about the risky assets at

brainly.com/question/25821437

#SPJ4

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Svetlanka [38]

Answer: a) $30,400

b)$10,394

c)$16,830

d)$8,015

e)$76,626

Explanation:

When a credit term such as 2/10, n/30 is given, it means that the buyer is liable for a 2% discount if they pay within 10 days otherwise they must pay within 30 days.

Discounts are applied AFTER returns are subtracted.

Also any freight charges are charged to the buyer.

With that said, let's calculate this with gusto

a) No discount. Returns of $1,600

= 32,000 - 1,600

= $30,400 is amount to be paid.

b) Freight charges of $300. 2% discount. Returns of $2,500

= (1-0.02)*(12,800 - 2500) + 300

= $10,394 is amount to be paid.

c)Discount of 1%. Returns of $4,000.

= (21,000-4000) * ( 1 - 0.01)

= $16,830 is amount to be paid.

d) Freight charges of $175. Returns of $1,000 and discount of 2%.

= (9,000 - 1,000) * (1 - 0.02) + 175

= $8,015 is amount to be paid.

e) Discount of 1%. No returns.

= 77,400 ( 1 - 0.01)

= $76,626 is amount to be paid.

8 0
4 years ago
A 60-day, 9% note for $10,000, dated May 1, is received from a customer on account. The maturity value of the note is Select one
Andreas93 [3]
I would say $10,150. The 10,000 principal x 1.09 = 10,900 but this would be for 9% for one year whereas the term is 60 days or approx. 2 months or 1/6 of a year so the increase would be 900/6 = 150 so the total value would be $10,150.
6 0
3 years ago
Investor A buys 100 shares of SLM Inc. at $35 a share and holds the stock for a year. Investor B buys 100 shares on margin. The
morpeh [17]

Answer:

A. $0

B. $112

C. Investor A 14.3% gain

Investor B 18.5%

Explanation:

a) Based on the information given interest cost for investor A will be Zero

b) Calculation for What is the interestcost for investor B

Cost of interest =(100 shares*$35)×(100*%-69%)×0.08

Cost of interest = 3,500 x 0.40 x 0.08

Cost of interest =$112

c) Calculation for what percentage returndoes each investor earn

Investor A: 4,000 - 3,500 = 500/3,500

= 0.1428 =14.3% gain

Investor B: $500 gain - $112 interest

= $388/2,100 = 0.1848 =18.5%

3 0
3 years ago
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ludmilkaskok [199]
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6 0
3 years ago
A customer’s specification for weight of an antiseptic cream sold in plastic tubes is 4.00 ounces ± 0.02 ounces. The target p
nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

Cp = 1.667

Cpk = 1.25

The filling process will deliver the customer's specifications since Cp > 1 and Cpk > 1

Explanation:

Given data:

Customer Specification           3.98          4.02

Process Average                      4.005

Process Standard Deviation    0.004

<u>Calculate the Cp and Cpk values</u>

Cp = Δ customer specification / ( 6 * std )

     = (4.02 - 3.98 ) / ( 6 * 0.04 )

     = 0.04 / 0.24 = 0.1667 + 1 = 1.667

Cpk ( upper ) = ( 4.02 - process average ) / ( 3* std )

                      = ( 4.02 - 4.005 ) / ( 3 * 0.004 )  = 1.25

Cpk ( lower ) = ( process average - 3.98 ) / ( 3 * std )

                     = ( 4.005 - 3.98 ) / ( 3 * 0.04 ) = 2.083

Cpk = minimum value of Cpk = 1.25

3 0
3 years ago
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