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gtnhenbr [62]
2 years ago
12

A patient has a total occlusion of the left femoral artery. With this condition, which assessment finding would the EMT expect

Medicine
1 answer:
kotykmax [81]2 years ago
5 0

A patient having total occlusion of the left femoral artery also have Pale skin to the left foot.

What is Occlusive Peripheral Arterial Disease?

  • Blockage or narrowing of a leg (or, less frequently, arm) artery, typically brought on by atherosclerosis and resulting in reduced blood flow, is known as occlusive peripheral arterial disease.
  • The symptoms depend on the size of the blockage and which artery it is in.
  • The two iliac arteries, the femoral arteries, the popliteal arteries, and the calves' main arteries are among the arteries in the legs where occlusive peripheral arterial disease most frequently manifests (tibial and peroneal arteries).

Learn more about the Peripheral Arterial Disease with the help of the following link:

brainly.com/question/12972418

#SPJ4

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which response would the nurse provide to the client admitted with severe preeclampsia who anxiously asks the nurse will my baby
geniusboy [140]

The correct response of the nurse to the client would be "We'll be constantly monitoring your baby's condition. I'll let you listen to the baby's heartbeat."

<h3>What is preeclampsia?</h3>

Preeclampsia is defined as a critical pregnancy situation that is characterized by hight blood pressure which usually occurs from 20 weeks of gestation.

The signs and symptoms of Preeclampsia include the following:

  • Excess protein in urine (proteinuria) or other signs of kidney problems.

  • Decreased levels of platelets in blood (thrombocytopenia)

  • Increased liver enzymes that indicate liver problems.

  • Severe headaches.

As a professional nurse and a competent nurse, it is their duty to reassure their patients which is a way to calm down any situation that may cause psychological stress.

It is the work of the Nurse to reassure her client and that anything is being done to monitor the fetus.

You can further prove this by offering to allow the client listen to the heart beat of her baby.

Learn more about Preeclampsia here:

brainly.com/question/3406909

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8 0
2 years ago
A spermatogonium in males is equivalent to _____________ in females.
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

The answer is C: primary oocyte

Explanation:

Ovogenesis is the process by which the ovary gives rise to a mature ovum (oocyte). The primary oocyte is the first to form during ovogonia, once the process of meiosis begins. It is compared with spermatogonium as it is also the initial phase for sperm formation.

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Guidelines for preventing exercise injuries include all of the following EXCEPT a. avoid or minimize high-impact activities b. e
madam [21]

Explanation:

b because exercising during ilnesses is not healthy

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A nursing assistant enters the patient's room while the physician is examining a patient who had surgery the day
Savatey [412]
The nursing assistant needs to know how the patient ambulates or transfers. She would need to have the dr put transfer orders in and the check with the RN to clarify.
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