Thank you kind sir or miss
The reason why iron oxide has more mass than the iron is because Iron oxide has oxygen atoms, and pure iron does not.
When iron rusts and forms iron oxide, the iron oxide has more mass than the iron. Which statement correctly explains this
observation?
(A)Iron oxide has oxygen atoms, and pure iron does not.
(B)The oxygen atoms in iron oxide have more mass than the iron atoms in pure iron.
(C)The iron atoms in iron oxide have more mass than pure iron.
(D)There are more iron atoms in iron oxide than in pure iron.
When a chemical reaction takes place, other atoms are combined with pure elements to form compounds. This addition of another atom (oxygen) after reaction makes iron oxide formed heavier than pure iron.
Iron oxide is a chemical substance formed when pure iron rusts. The formation of iron oxide is a chemical reaction.
Hence, the correct answer to the question is; the iron is heavier because Iron oxide has oxygen atoms, and pure iron does not.
Learn more: brainly.com/question/6284546
Answer:
At first glance, it may seem as if it's perfectly legal to copy content from a website. But is it? The short answer to this question is "no," unless you've obtained the author's permission. In fact, virtually all digital content enjoys the same copyright protections as non-digital, "offline" content.
Explanation:
Using the hypergeometric distribution, it is found that the probability is 0.845 = 84.5%.
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- The patients are chosen from the sample without replacement, which means that the hypergeometric distribution is used to solve this question.
Hypergeometric distribution:
The probability of x successes is given by:
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- N is the size of the population.
- n is the size of the sample.
- k is the total number of desired outcomes.
Combination formula:
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given as:
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- 56074 patients, thus
- Sample of 40, thus,
- 235 left against medical advice, thus,
.
The probability that none left against medical advice is P(X = 0), so:
The probability is 0.845 = 84.5%.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24008577
Answer:
2023
Explanation:
From 2010 to 2018, the expected value becomes lower. From 2018 to 2023, it lowers further. Then, from 2023 to 2028, the value increases. From that, the lowest point should be 2023.
Hope this helps :)
