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Ber [7]
1 year ago
9

You need to add 65 meq of an electrolyte to a tpn bag. your stock vial contains 8 meq/ml. round to the nearest whole number, to

determine how much electrolyte from the stock vial you’ll need?
Business
1 answer:
Neporo4naja [7]1 year ago
3 0

8m Eq/ml are present in 1 vial. Consequently, 1 m Eq is prese.

<h3>A bottle or a vial?</h3>

A vial, often referred to as a phial or flacon, is a tiny glass or plastic container or bottle that is frequently used to store medications in the form of liquids, powders, or capsules.

<h3>What kinds of vials exist?</h3>

Vials come in a variety of shapes and materials, including glass, plastic, jars, aluminum, and dispenser tubes. Vials come in a variety of forms, including glass, plastic, jars, metal, and dispenser tubes.

<h3>What is an illustration of a vial?</h3>
  • A vial is an extremely small bottle that typically contains liquids. A vial is a container used in a lab to hold liquid chemicals.
  • a glass container or bottle, especially one with a narrow tube shape used to hold medications, perfumes, or other chemicals.

learn more about vial here

<u>brainly.com/question/1615370</u>

#SPJ4

You might be interested in
Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta for t
finlep [7]

Answer: Adviser B is the superior stock selector.

Explanation:

For the comparision between the two investment advisers, the Jenson's Alpha will be utilized.

Jenson's Alpha:

= Portfolio Actual Return - CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio Return)

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 6%

Market return(E(Em) = 14%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1.5 (14-6)

= 6 + 12

= 18%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 18% = 1%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1(14-6) = 6 + 1(8) = 14%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 14% = 2%

Adviser B is a better selector because he has a larger alpha of 2% compared to Adviser A who has 1%.

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 3%

Market return(E(Rm) = 15%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1.5 (15-3)

= 3 + 18

= 21%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 21% = -2%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1(15-3) = 3 + 1(12) = 15%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 15% = 1%

Given the changes, Adviser B is still the better selector because he has a larger alpha of 1% compared to Adviser A who has -2%.

7 0
2 years ago
A monopolist will find that its marginal revenue curve Grupo de opciones de respuesta Lies below its demand curve and has the sa
alexdok [17]

Answer:

Lies below its demand curve and is steeper than its demand curve.

Explanation:

The marginal revenue curve for a monopolist lies below the demand curve because of the quantity effect. The quantity effect refers to the fact that even a monopolist must lower its price if it wants to sell a larger quantity of goods or services.

The slope of the marginal revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve because it reflects the market power of the monopolist. Instead, the marginal revenue curve for a perfectly competitive firm (with 0 market power) is horizontal or perfectly elastic.

5 0
3 years ago
Simon lost $4,300 gambling this year on a trip to Las Vegas. In addition, he paid $2,650 to his broker for managing his $265,000
Ostrovityanka [42]

Answer:

Assuming Simon’s AGI is $40,000.

Gambling losses are only deductible to the extent of gambling winnings. Thus,Simon cannot deduct any of the $4,300 gambling losses. The $3,160 transportation expenses are also nondeductible as they are deemed to be personal expenses. The $2,650 broker management fees are deductible as investment fees (miscellaneous itemized deductions subject to the 2% AGI floor), and the $1,030 tax return fees are also deductible as miscellaneous itemized deductions subject to the 2% AGI floor.

Thus, $2,650 + $1,030 – (2% x $40,000 AGI) = $2,880 deduction

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a firm has economies of scale, increasing the quantity produced will lead to: multiple choice 1 higher long run average costs
xeze [42]

It results in lower short run average cost in economies of sale .

<h3>Economies of scale</h3>

Economies of scale refers to the situation where, as the quantity of output goes up, the cost per unit goes down. This is the idea behind “warehouse stores” like Costco or Walmart. In everyday language: a larger factory can produce at a lower average cost than a smaller factory. Figure 2 illustrates the idea of economies of scale, showing the average cost of producing an alarm clock falling as the quantity of output rises. For a small-sized factory like S, with an output level of 1,000, the average cost of production is $12 per alarm clock. For a medium-sized factory like M, with an output level of 2,000, the average cost of production falls to $8 per alarm clock. For a large factory like L, with an output of 5,000, the average cost of production declines still further to $4 per alarm clock.

One prominent example of economies of scale occurs in the chemical industry. Chemical plants have a lot of pipes. The cost of the materials for producing a pipe is related to the circumference of the pipe and its length. However, the volume of chemicals that can flow through a pipe is determined by the cross-section area of the pipe.

Learn more about economies of scale here :

brainly.com/question/15605103

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6 0
1 year ago
Over the past 10 years, Lincoln's profit-sharing payments have been substantial. Maria's annual salary was $40,000 last year, an
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

If she earned $10,000 over the past 10 years, then the profit-sharing award represents 2.5% of her annual salary

But if she earned $10,000 only in one year, then the profit-sharing award represents the 25% of her annual salary

Explanation:

If she earned $10,000 over the past 10 years, and we suppose that all payments are equal, then each year she received $1000.

What percentage of her annual salary ($40,000) $1000 represents?

$1000/$40,000=0,025*100= 2.5%

But if she earned $10,000 in one year, then:

$10,000/$40,000= 0,25*100=25%

3 0
3 years ago
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