Answer: Actually refinance the obligation.
Management indicated that they are going to refinance the obligation.
Have a contractual right to defer settlement of the liability for at least one year after the balance sheet date.
The liability is contractually due more than one year after the balance sheet date.
Explanation:
A current liability is an obligation payable within a year. A short term liability can be excluded from current abilities if management indicates that they are going to refinance it and show that they are capable of doing so.
Also if the company has a contractual right to defer settlement of the liability for at least one year after the balance sheet date, the short term obligation can be excluded. The deferment means that it will be recognized in another period.
When the liability is contractually due more than one year after the balance sheet date, it stops being a current liability and becomes a non-current liability payable after a year.
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer:
The long term capital gain= $30000-$25000
The long term capital gain= $5000
The basis in stock will be zero after the distribution.
Explanation:
Step 1 of 3
Tax treatment of amount distributed to shareholders:
The amount received as distribution to a shareholder under S Corporation is equal to the cash and fair market value of property distributed. The distribution is considered as tax-free to the limit that it does not exceed shareholder’s basis in the company’s stock. Any amount received in excess of basis will be treated as capital gain.
Step 2 of 3
However, taxation depends whether S Corporation has ever been a C Company or it posses’ accumulated earnings and profits. If it was never a C Corporation or doesn’t holds AEP then distribution equals to basis of share in S Corporation is a tax free gain for shareholder. Gain over and above basis is taxed as capital gains.
Step 3 of 3
In the given problem, C is a shareholder in S Corporation. He receives $30,000 as cash distribution. His basis in stock is $25,000. The distribution up to basis of stock is tax free distribution and above that is charged to capital gains. It is as follows-
Thus, capital gain of is taxable in hands of C. His basis in S Corporation will reduced to zero as entire distribution is over and above basis of his stock.
Answer:
The correct answer is 'Option (b)
Explanation:
Cole co. should compare between actual interest incurred on all the debts and the calculated interest on weighted average accumulated expenditure and lower of these two should be capitalized.
Actual interest incurred =$50,000+20,000 = $70,000
Calculated interest = $40,000
Lower of these two to be capitalized for the building during 2011= $40,000
Answer:
D. May require losing money fighting the first potential entrant.
Explanation:
In this form of gaming, or in this game theory, it is said to be played over and over and could possible be in a probability form that is why that possibly, as a player, you may require loosing money fighting the first potential entrant.
Fighting the first entrant, possibility of cooperating means that their could be a possible compromise in order to carry on accepting a payoff over a certain period of time, knowing that if we do not uphold our end of the deal, our opponent may decide not to either.
