Answer:
The answer is: Testosterone
Explanation:
Testosterone is an androgen and primary male sex hormone produced by the gonads. In males, this hormone is responsible for the development of the male reproductive tissues, and promoting the secondary sexual characteristics in males such as growth of body hair, increase in the bone mass and muscle mass.
Answer:
b. epididymis/vas deferens/ejaculatory duct/urethra
Explanation:
The male reproductive organs are those which produce sperm and transport them during coitus.
the correct order for the structures sperm pass through as they travel toward the penis:
- Epididymis is the structure where sperm matures and stored till ejaculation.
- Vas Deferens a long tube which conducts sperm from the testes to the ejaculatory duct.
- Ejaculatory duct is a duct which is formed by the union of the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicle. It releases sperm into the urethra.
- Urethra is a canal which conducts semen to the outside of the body via the penis.
You are examining a 38-year-old woman who complains of abdomen pain, burning when urinating, and a little temperature, all of which point to PDI.
An infection of a woman's reproductive organs is known as a pelvic inflammatory disease. It's a problem that several STDs, like chlamydia and gonorrhea, frequently bring on. PID can also be brought on by other infections that are not sexually transmitted.
Antibiotics of several kinds can treat PID. Antibiotic therapy, however, does not undo any scarring brought on by the illness. For this reason, a woman must seek medical attention right once if she experiences pelvic pain or other PID symptoms.
Assessing a 38-year-old lady who complains of aching stomach pain, burning during urine, and a minor fever is hence indicative of PDI disease.
LEARN MORE ABOUT PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE HERE:
brainly.com/question/4411861
#SPJ4
Complete Question
You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is reporting achy abdominal pain, burning urination, and a slight fever. As you assist her to the ambulance, you notice that she has a shuffling gait. What condition does this indicate?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Chlamydia
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) PID
Allergic conjunctivitis.
The fact that symptoms are in both eyes with watery discharge, no vision changes, and intense itching sounds mostly like allergic conjunctivitis, especially considering the swollen condition of the tarsal conjunctiva.
<h3>What is Allergic conjunctivitis?</h3>
- An allergic reaction can result in allergic conjunctivitis, an inflammation of the conjunctiva.
- Conjunctival inflammation may result from allergic reactions brought on, for instance, by allergens in the air.
- Common symptoms include redness, itching, swelling, tearing, and stringy discharge.
- Different eye drops could reduce discomfort and inflammation.
<h3>Why does allergic conjunctivitis occur?</h3>
- When the conjunctiva swells or becomes inflamed as a result of an allergic reaction to pollen, dust mites, pet dander, mold, or other allergens, this condition is known as allergic conjunctivitis.
<h3>How is allergic conjunctivitis treated?</h3>
- ice compress.
- synthetic tears eye drops or oral medicines for allergies (over-the-counter or prescription).
- Immunotherapy for allergies.
<h3>How long does last before it goes away?</h3>
- Although they often go away within 24 hours of the allergen being removed, symptoms can be severe.
- Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis (SAC) is a type of ocular allergy that typically manifests as lesser but more enduring symptoms during a certain pollen season (s).
To learn more about allergy visit:
brainly.com/question/12893949
#SPJ4
