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Arte-miy333 [17]
2 years ago
4

The remedy of specific performance will most likely be granted in the case of a(n)?

Business
1 answer:
melomori [17]2 years ago
3 0

The remedy of specific performance will most likely be granted in the case of a "breach of contract".

<h3>What do you mean by specific performance?</h3>

Specific performance is an equitable remedy in the law of contract, whereby a court issues an order requiring a party to perform a specific act, such as to complete performance of the contract. It is typically available in the sale of land law, but otherwise is not generally available if damages are an appropriate alternative.

Specific performance is almost never available for contracts of personal service, although performance may also be ensured through the threat of proceedings for contempt of court.

The most common equitable remedies are money damages, specific performance, and rescission. Therefore, in case of contract breach by someobe this remedy will granted.

Learn more about specific performance, refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/15072156

#SPJ4

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Producer​ surplus: A. is the difference between the true value of a good and the amount the firm wants to receive. B. is the dif
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Producer surplus is defined as the difference between the current market price of a good and the amount or cost incurred by the firm to produced the good. If the producer will be able to get the higher price for a good than the full cost of production of that good then he will earn the producer surplus.

Graphically, the producer surplus is represented by the flat top.

6 0
3 years ago
Quigley Inc. is considering two financial plans for the coming year. Management expects sales to be $300,000, operating costs to
julia-pushkina [17]

Answer:

b. 2.59%

Explanation:

<u>The assets are 200,000</u>

<u>For Plan A</u>

it will be 25% debt  = 200,000 x 25% = 50,000

and 75% equity      = 200,000 x 75% = 150,000

The debt will generate 8.8% interest expense

50,000 x 8.8% = 4,400

Income for the expected project under Plan A

sales revenue 300,000

operating cost 265,000

EBIT                     35,000

interest expense  4,400

EBT                      30,600

income tax            10,710

Net income          19,890

TE = times interest earned = EBIT /interest expense

35,000 / 4,400 = 7,95 It achieve the requirement of 4.5 or above

ROE for plan A  net income / equity

19,890/150,000 = 0,1326 = 13.26%

<u>Under Plan B</u>

We will take as much debt as we can until TIE = 4.5

so:

EBIT / interest expense = TIE

35,000/interest expense = 4.5

35,000/4.5 = 7.777,78

This will be the interest expense for plan B

Now we calculate net income:

(EBIT - interest) x (1- tax-rate) = net income

(35,000 - 7,777.78) x (1-35%) = 17.694,443

and for the ROE for plan B first, we need to check the capital structure:

The interest expense are the 8.8% of the debt so

debt x rate = interest expense

interest expense / rate = debt

7,777.78/0.088 = 88.383,86

Asset = debt + equty

200,000 = 88,383.86 + equity

200,000 - 88,383.86 = equity = 111,616.14‬

Now, we got the capital structure

debt 88,383.86

equity 111,616.14

ROE for Plan B

17,694.443 / 111,616.14 = 0,15852943 = 15.85%

now we compare both ROE

Plan A 13.26%

Plan B 15.85%

Difference 2.59%

Using Plan B will increase the ROE for 2.59%

6 0
3 years ago
Ik this is really a brainly question to ask but if you have a lyric line you would like me to add to my song i would love to hea
pychu [463]

Answer:

HERE IS MY SONG/LYRIC:

BADABING BING BING BOOM BOOM BOOM

YOU SHALL FACE THE BRAINLY MODS

AND SOON MEET YOUR DOOM

BRAINLIEST WOULD BE NICE

IF YOU DONT, IN YOU BED YOU WILL FIND DOZENS OF MICE

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the required reserve ratio is 0.20. Total bank deposits are $200 million and the bank holds $50 million in reserves. How
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

$50 million

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

As we know that

Required reserve = Deposits × Required reserve ratio

= $200 million × 0.20

= $40 million

Now the excess reserves is

= Bank reserves - required reserve

= $50 million - $40 million

= $10 million

So, the money creation is

Money creation = Money multiplier × excess reserve

where,

Money multiplier = 1 ÷ required reserve ratio

= 1 ÷ 0.20

= 5

So, the money creation is

= 5 × $10 million

= $50 million

8 0
3 years ago
The real output of the economy under conditions of full employment
lisov135 [29]
Hello there,


The real output of the economy under conditions of full employment <span>is​ long-run aggregate supply.

Hope this helps!

~Hottwizzlers</span>
8 0
4 years ago
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