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Nuetrik [128]
2 years ago
7

The lend-lease act did not violate the neutrality acts because?

History
1 answer:
Aleksandr-060686 [28]2 years ago
8 0

The Lend-Lease Acts did not violate the Neutrality Acts because the Neutrality Act of 1939 because no weapons or ammunitions were actually sold to the British

It had already made it possible to break out of isolationism. The Lend-Lease Act, passed by Congress in March 1941, gave President Roosevelt essentially unrestricted power to send supplies like food, ammunition, tanks, airplanes, and trucks to help with the war effort in Europe without going against the country's formal neutrality policy. Beginning in 1935, Congress implemented a number of laws to keep American companies and persons out of wars and to promote neutrality. The Lend- Lease Act was passed in response to Pearl Harbor Attack.

To know more about Lend- Lease Act here

brainly.com/question/1126649

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Explanation:

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  • The British Mandate of Palestine was a territorial administration entrusted by the League of Nations to the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland in the Middle East, following the First World War and as part of the partition of the Ottoman Empire, with the status of low territory mandate. The territory on which it was established corresponded to the southern region of the Mediterranean Levante, a region that the Ottoman Empire lost as a result of its defeat in the war. Although the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland administered these territories de facto from 1917, the Mandate entered into force in June of 1922 and expired in May of 1948. At first it included the present territories of Jordan, Israel and the present Palestine , although from September of 1922 the United Kingdom separated the Eastern part of the same, creating the Emirate of Transjordania.
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