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1 year ago

I really need help solving this problem from my trigonometry prepbook

Mathematics

1 answer:

padilas [110]1 year ago

5 0

The terminal ray of 145° lies in II Quadrant.

The terminal ray of -83° lies in IV Quadrant.

The terminal ray of -636 lies in I Quadrant.

The terminal ray of 442 lies in I Quadrant.

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PLEASE HELP 15 POINTS<br><br><br> -8 - h = 2(-.5h + 4)

Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

h= -6

Step-by-step explanation:

-8-h=2(-.5h+4)

-8-h=h+4

-2h=12

h=-6

3 0

4 years ago

Factorise.<br> Help would be massively appreciated:)

kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

A. 2x(x+3)

B. 2y(y-4)

C. 5p(p+2)

D. 7c(c-3)

E. 3x(2x+3)

I hope this helps

4 0

3 years ago

WILL MARK BRAINLIEST

Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

a² + b² = 68

a3 + b3 = 520

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

a + b = 10 (1)

ab = 16 (2)

A. Find a² + b²

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² (3)

Substitutite the values of (1) and (2) into (3)

(10)² = a² + 2(16) + b²

100 = a² + 32 + b²

Subtract 32 from both sides

100 - 32 = a² + b²

a² + b² = 68

B. a^3 + b^3

(a + b)^3 = a^3 + b^3 + 3ab(a + b)

(10)^3 = a^3 + b^3 + 3*16(10)

1000 = a^3 + b^3 + 480

a^3 + b^3 = 1000 - 480

a3 + b3 = 520

5 0

3 years ago

1. How do binomial and geometric models differ?

mestny [16]

2 the genetics the fine ring

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A pharmaceutical company receives large shipments of aspirin tablets. The acceptance sampling plan is to randomly select and tes

DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

a) The probability that this whole shipment will be accepted is 30%.

b) Many of the shipments with this rate of defective aspirin tablets will be rejected.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a shipment of 3000 aspirin tablets, with a 5% rate of defects.

We select a sample of size 48 and test for defectives.

If more than one aspirin is defective, the batch is rejected.

The amount of defective aspirin tablets X can be modeled as a binomial distribution random variable, with p=0.55 and n=48

We have to calculate the probabilities that X is equal or less than 1: P(X≤1).

$P(X\leq1)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)\\\\\\P(0)=\binom{48}{0}(0.05)^0(0.95)^{48}=1*1*0.0853=0.0853\\\\\\P(1)=\binom{48}{1}(0.05)^1(0.95)^{47}=48*0.05*0.0897=0.2154\\\\\\P(X\eq1)=0.0853+0.2154=0.3007$

8 0

3 years ago