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MA_775_DIABLO [31]
1 year ago
13

what is the probability that headway is within 1 standard deviation of the mean value? (round your answer to three decimal place

s.)
Mathematics
1 answer:
barxatty [35]1 year ago
7 0

As described in statistics the mean standard deviation of the headway is 0.890

what is the statistics ?

The study of statistics is the field that deals with the gathering, structuring, analyzing, interpreting, and presenting of data. In order to apply statistics to a problem in science, business, or society, it is customary to start with a statistical population or a statistical model that will be investigated.

solution:

P(0.995 ≤ x ≤ 1.445) = F(1.445) - F is the given mean value (0.995).

The distribution's cdf is

f(x) = { (1 - 1/x⁶ , x > 1) (0. x ≤ 1)

F(1.445) = 1 - (1/(1.445)⁶)

F(0.995) = 0

Now, using the values of F(1.445) and F(0.995) in P( 0.995 ≤ x ≤ 1.445) to get F(1.445) - F(0.995):

P( 0.995 ≤ x ≤ 1.445)

=1 - (1/(1.445)⁶) - 0

=0.890

Therefore the mean value of standard deviation is 0.890

To learn more about the statistics from the given link

brainly.com/question/15525560

#SPJ4

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Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And if we find the individual probability we got:

P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865

And replacing we got:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=7, p=0.127)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

And we want to find this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And if we find the individual probability we got:

P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

6 0
3 years ago
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