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1 year ago

Interdependence among individuals and interdependence among nations are both based on the gains from trade. True or false?.

1 answer:

6 0

It is true that two countries can benefit from trade even if one of them has a clear advantage in producing all goods. Each nation only needs to have a comparative advantage in one particular good.

When producing a specific good, agents in an economic model have a comparative advantage over rivals if they can do so at a lower relative opportunity cost or autarky price, that is, at a lower relative marginal cost before trade.

Your greatest skill and least amount of sacrifice are your comparative advantages. If you are a great babysitter and a great plumber, for instance, your comparative advantage is plumbing.

Developed by British economist David Ricardo in the 19th century, comparative advantage is an economic theory that links differences in relative opportunity costs, or the price paid for producing a given good, across nations, to the causes and benefits of international trade.

Learn more about comparative advantage here

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The Higgins Company has just purchased a piece of equipment at a cost of $120,000. This equipment will reduce operating costs by

Maru [420]

Answer:

B. 2.8 years

Explanation:

Initial investment = -120,000+ 8,000 = -112,000

Yr 1 cash inflow = 40,000, hence net CF = 40,000-112,000 = -72,000

Yr 2 cash inflow = 40,000, hence net CF = 40,000- 72,000 = -32,000

Yr 3 cash inflow = 40,000, hence net CF = 40,000-32,000 = 12,000

Payback period = last year with negative net CF + (absolute net CF that year/ total CF the following year)

= 2 + (32,000/40,000)

= 2 + 0.8

= 2.8 years

3 0

4 years ago

Suppose that the market demand curve for bean sprouts is given by P = 1,660 - 4Q, where P is the price and Q is total industry o

a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

In equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option e= 300.

Q = $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Explanation:

Data Given:

Market Demand Curve = P = 1660-4Q

where, P = price and Q = total industry output

Each firm's marginal cost = $60 per unit of output

So, we know that Q = $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$

where $q_{}$ being the individual firm output.

Solution:

P = 1660-4Q

P = 1660- 4( $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$ )

P = 1660 - 4 $q_{1}$ - 4 $q_{2}$

Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by $q_{1}$

Let's suppose new equation is X

X = 1660 $q_{1}$ - 4 $q_{1} ^{2}$ - 4 $q_{1}$ $q_{2}$ - 60 $q_{1}$

Taking the derivative w.r.t to $q_{1}$ , we will get:

$X^{'}$ = 1660 - 8 $q_{1}$ - 4 $q_{2}$ - 60 = 0

Making rearrangements into the equation:

8 $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$ = 1660 - 60

8 $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$ = 1600

Dividing the whole equation by 4

2 $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$ = 400

Solving for $q_{1}$

2 $q_{1}$ = 400 - $q_{2}$

$q_{1}$ = 200 - 0.5 $q_{2}$

Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by $q_{2}$

P = 1660 - 4 $q_{1}$ - 4 $q_{2}$

Let's suppose new equation is Y

Y = 1660 $q_{2}$ - 4 $q_{1}$ $q_{2}$ -4 $q_{2} ^{2}$ - 60 $q_{2}$

Pugging in the value of $q_{1}$

Y = 1660 $q_{2}$ - 4 $q_{2}$ (200 - 0.5 $q_{2}$ ) -4 $q_{2} ^{2}$ - 60 $q_{2}$

Y = 1660 $q_{2}$ - 800 $q_{2}$ +2 $q_{2} ^{2}$ -4 $q_{2} ^{2}$ - 60 $q_{2}$

Y = 1600 $q_{2}$ - 800 $q_{2}$ -2 $q_{2} ^{2}$

Taking the derivative w.r.t $q_{2}$

$Y^{'}$ = 1600 - 800 - 4 $q_{2}$ = 0

Solving for $q_{2}$

4 $q_{2}$ = 800

$q_{2}$ = 200

$q_{1}$ = 200 - 0.5 $q_{2}$

Plugging in the value of $q_{2}$ to get the value of $q_{1}$

$q_{1}$ = 200 - 0.5 (200)

$q_{1}$ = 200 - 100

$q_{1}$ = 100

Q = $q_{1}$ + $q_{2}$

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Hence, in equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option

e= 300.

5 0

3 years ago

If your friend Raheem asks you, “What type of account should I use to save for retirement,” what would you tell him?

SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

Roth IRA account

Explanation:

The best type of account that you should save money in for Retirement is a Roth IRA account. This will allow you to put and save a maximum of $5,500 USD per year which will compound annually with interest and can be redeemed when you retire. Once you redeem your money at the age of 65 1/2 it will be completely tax-free. Meaning you have no liabilities with that money whatsoever and you can simply enjoy your retirement with that money.

7 0

3 years ago

Lotoya Davis Corporation has 10 million shares o common stock issued and outstanding. On June 1, the board of directors voted an

Viktor [21]

Answer:

June 1st:

Retained Earnings (Dr.) $8,000,000

Dividends Payable (Cr.) $8,000,000

June 30th

Dividends Payable (Dr.) $8,000,000

Cash (Cr.) $8,000,000

These entries will remain same even in the case of liquidating dividend.

Explanation:

On June 1st the dividend is declared so the journal entry will be

Retained Earnings (Dr.) $8,000,000

Dividends Payable (Cr.) $8,000,000

There will be no journal entry on June 14th.

On June 30th the dividend is paid:

Dividends Payable (Dr.) $8,000,000

Cash (Cr.) $8,000,000

The entry would not have differed if it was a liquidating dividend.

5 0

3 years ago

Comment if you have really strict parents, mine are really strict and I wanna see if anyone has stricter parents the me ;-;

AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

my mom is my strictest parent, rip. my dad is pretty chill tho

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers