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anzhelika [568]
3 years ago
10

Show that each number is a rational number by expressing it as a ratio of two integers

Mathematics
1 answer:
kykrilka [37]3 years ago
8 0
The answer will be c 
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What is the value of x.
Gemiola [76]

Answer: 46 degrees

Step-by-step explanation: First you need to find the value of the vertical angle which is 180-(85+53) which is 42 degrees. Since vertical angles are congruent, you can say that 180-(42+92) is equal to x. When you solve it, you get x=46 which is your answer

4 0
3 years ago
I need the answer to this❤️
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

5/2x, 5/2 y

Step-by-step explanation:

An enlargement means the scale factor must be greater than one

The only choice with a scale factor greater than one is 5/2x, 5/2 y

5 0
3 years ago
Answers should be exact decimals (please do not leave as fractions or unfinished calculations). A six-sided die (cube) with face
Ghella [55]

Answer:

(a) P = 0.0001

(b) P = 0.6561

(c) P = 0.2916

(d) P = 0.3439

(e) P = 0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a probability problem.

The dice is rolled 4 times (n=4) and we calculate the probability of different outcomes.

The probability of a 6 in a roll is 0.5.

The probability of a 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 in a roll is 0.5/5=0.1.

<u />

<u>a) Outcome: all the rolls are 2.</u>

The probability of having a 2 in a roll is 0.1, so we can calculate the probability of having a 2 in four consecutive rolls as

P(x1=2;x2=2;x3=2;x4=2)=P(x=2)^4=0.1^4=0.0001

<u>b) Outcome: none of the rolls is a 2.</u>

The probability of having any other number but 2 in 4 rolls is:

P(x1\neq2;x2\neq2;x3\neq2;x4\neq2)=P(x\neq2)^4=(1-0.1)^4=0.6561

<u>c) Outcome: exactly one roll is a 2</u>

This is the sum of the probability of having a 2 in the first, second, third or fouth roll, and others numbers in the rest of the rolls. These 4 combinations have the same probability, so we will multiply it by 4.

P(exactly \,one\,2)=4*P(x1=2;x2\neq2;x3\neq2;x4\neq2)\\\\P(exactly \,one\,2)=4*0.1*0.9*0.9*0.9=0.2916

<u>d) Outcome: at least one of the rolls is a 2</u>

In this case, is the probability of having at least one 2, is the sum of the probability of getting a 2 in the first roll, the probability of getting a 2 in the second roll, the probability of getting a 2 in the third roll and the probability of getting a 2 in the four roll:

P(x1=2)+P(x2=2)+P(x3=2)+P(x4=2)=0.1+0.9*0.1+0.9*0.9*0.1+0.9*0.9*0.9*0.1\\\\P(x1=2)+P(x2=2)+P(x3=2)+P(x4=2)=0.1+0.09+0.081+0.0729\\\\P(x1=2)+P(x2=2)+P(x3=2)+P(x4=2)=0.3439

<u>e) Outcome: either the first roll or the last roll is a 2</u>

The probability of getting a 2 in the first roll is equal to having it in a fourth roll, and its the probability of getting a 2 in a roll (multiplied by 2, beacuse there can be either in the first or in the last roll).

P(x1=2)+P(x4=2)=2*P(x=2)=2*0.1=0.2

6 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3-6y%7D%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7By%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%5C%5C%7D" id
svp [43]

Answer:

y = 11 + √ 73/ 4  , 11 − √ 73 /4

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Hanna dose push ups in set of 3.She did 10 sets of push ups today.Then her coach asked her to do 15 more push ups.How many push
Travka [436]
45 because 1set equals 3 push ups and she did ten sets so 10sets equal 30 push ups and then her coach asked her to do 15 more so 30 plus 15 equals 45 so she did 45 push ups that day!
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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