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mihalych1998 [28]
3 years ago
14

Van Frank Telecommunications has a patent on a cellular transmission process. The company has amortized the $21.60 million cost

of the patent on a straight-line basis since it was acquired at the beginning of 2017. Due to rapid technological advances in the industry, management decided that the patent would benefit the company over a total of six years rather than the nine-year life being used to amortize its cost. The decision was made at the end of 2021 (before adjusting and closing entries). What is the appropriate adjusting entry for patent amortization in 2021 to reflect the revised estimate? (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field. Do not r
Business
1 answer:
Arada [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

General Journal                        Debit               Credit

Amortization expenses        $6,000,000

      Patent                                                       $6,000,000

<u>Calculation of annual amortization after the estimate change</u>

Cost                                           $21,600,000

Less: Amortization till date      $9,600,000

         ($2,400,000*4 years)

Un-amortized Cost A                $12,000,000

Remaining Life (6yrs-4yrs)        <u>    2 Years    </u>

New annual amortization         <u>$6,000,000</u>

Old annual amortization = $21,600,000 / 9 years = $2,400,000

Amortization till date = $2,400,000 * 4 = $9,600,000

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grandymaker [24]

Answer:

It will make annual deposits for $ 4,056.202

Explanation:

His goal is a future value of 1,000,000 in 35 years.

we will deduct from this the future value of his other investment:

<u>IRA</u>

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 6,960.00

time      35.00

rate                0.08300

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Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

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time     35.00

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<u>Proceeds required from the fund:</u>

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Now we calculate the PMT:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV  $860,764.52

time      34 years

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rate                0.0934

860764.52 \div \frac{1-(1+0.0934)^{-34} }{0.0934} = C\\

C  $ 4,056.202

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Answer:

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From the answers listed in the question the one that would be considered false would be that the less volatile the price of a security, the wider the bid-asked spread. This is because the bid-asked spread usually depends on the liquidity of the asset, when the asset has a large enough liquidity which causes the volatility to be low the bid-asked spread becomes very narrow since there is not much demand for buyers willing to pay higher prices for the asset in question. The opposite occurs if an asset is very popular and volatility is high which creates a much wider bid-asked spread.

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