Answer:
a) It can be used because np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial distribution and approximation to the normal:
The binomial distribution has two parameters:
n, which is the number of trials.
p, which is the probability of a success on a single trial.
If np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5, the normal approximation to the binomial can appropriately be used.
In this question:

So, lets verify the conditions:
np = 201*0.45 = 90.45 > 5
n(1-p) = 201*(1-0.45) = 201*0.55 = 110.55 > 5
Since both np and n(1-p) are greater than 5, the approximation can be used.
You can start by looking at the mode of the set of number automatically b and d are eliminated. We then proceed to calculate the mean so add all the numbers in A so it’ll be, 52 then divide by the amount of numbers in the set so 6. 52/6 =8.6
And C ends up being 48 so 48/6 = 8
Therefore your answer is C