so hmm the idea behind the elimination, is to make the value atop or below, of either variable, the same but with a negative sign
so hmmm say... we'll eliminate "y"
so... let's see, we have 2y and 5y, both positive
what do we multiply 2y to get a negative -5y, that way, -5y +5y = 0 and poof it goes
well let's see, let's try "k"
so.. if we multiply 2y by -5/2, we'll end up with -5y
well, let's multiply that first equation then by -5/2
so.. now we know x = 1.... so let's plug that in say hmmm 2nd equation
To simplify this fraction you would divide by the fraction 3/3 and this fraction would then reduce to 1/12
The probability that one will get the required result on the next roll as described in the game is; 1/36.
<h3>What is the probability of getting the required roll to secure a win in the game?</h3>
It follows from the task content that to secure a win in the back gammon game using the standard dice, one must roll double threes.
Hence, the probability of such result to occur can be evaluated as follows;
P (double threes) = 1/6 × 1/6
= 1/36.
Read more on probability;
brainly.com/question/24756209
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A 3x+3c
B 9x^2+12x
C -4ab+24a
D 3x-6
E 3x+3
F (x+1)(2x+3)
G x^2+x-6
H 6x^2-31x+18
I 6x-8y+11
J 2x^3+11x^2+17x+6
M=12
40
44
20
250/11
Last one is 33
Answer:
3/4
Step-by-step explanation:
-2-(-5) divided into 6-2
-2 +5 divided into 4
3 divided into 4
