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Leno4ka [110]
4 years ago
9

Prove that (AB)−1=B−1A−1

Mathematics
1 answer:
zhannawk [14.2K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

Consider,

(AB)^{-1}(AB)=I (Identity rule)

Multiplying by B⁻¹ on the both the sides, we get that

(AB)^{-1}(AB)B^{-1}=IB^{-1}\\\\(AB)^{-1}A(BB^{-1})=B^{-1}

And we know that BB⁻¹ = I

So, it becomes,

(AB)^{-1}A=B^{-1}

Now, multiplying by A⁻¹ on both the sides, we get that

(AB)^{-1}AA^{-1}=B^{-1}A^{-1}\\\\(AB)^{-1}=B^{-1}A^{-1} (AA⁻¹=I)

Hence, proved.

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Answer:

The correct answer is 619.

Step-by-step explanation:

A number is said to have point symmetry when turning it upside down, that is, turning it 180º, remains the same.

As for geometric figures, the same thing happens. It is symmetrically the same if it is built around a center and when turning it does not change its shape.

That is why the correct option is 619 (6I9).

8 0
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

Stephon can buy total 4 chips bag and 2 candy bar

Given as :

The money which Stephon has in his pocket = $ 12

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Now, according to question

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And The number of candy bar he can buy = 6 - x = 6 - 4 = 2

Hence Stephon can buy total 4 chips bag and 2 candy bar .  

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