Answer:
Explanation:
Present value is calculated as the discounted sum of either a fixed amount or a series of payments in the future, at a given interest rates.
For example, at an interest of 5%, $100 in 10 years will be valued at $100 / 1.05^10 = $61.39 today
A I believe is the correct answer
Answer and Explanation:
I will go through each and every option explaining the reasons and what option would be the best:
The (a) part says 'difference in wages will eventually disappear since a haircut is a homogeneous good' - This is not true because even though it is an homogeneous product, some customers do have a strong preference for barbers who are not going bald. Therefore, they know their worth and they would want to capitalize on that and get paid just a bit more than bald barbers.
The (b) part says 'barbershops that hire barbers with hair will be able to charge a higher price for a haircut to those consumers who have a strong preference for barbers with hair'. - If the barbershop charges higher price for barbers that have hair then the customers will prefer bald barbers as the questions mentions that there is high competition and since it is an homogeneous, customers would be willing to save money and get their haircut from some other barber.
The (c) part says 'barbershops that hire bald barbers will always be much more profitable' - Not necessarily. The reason is that some customers have a strong preference for barbers who are not bald and therefore, that would help barbershops who have barbers with hair to be a bit more profitable as some additional customers would want their services.
The (d) part says 'barbershops that hire barbers with hair will always be much more profitable' - This is the best option and the reason for it is because some customers have a strong preference for barbers with hair and that would help the barbershop to earn more. They would have the customers who already indifferent to whoever cuts their hair and in addition to that, they would also have the customers who have their preference.
Hence the answer is D.
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
In an unregulated market, negative externality results in a higher social marginal cost than the firm marginal cost because this market is not properly regulated by the government officials. Hence, these firms are not taking into account the effect of negative externalities in their cost.
We know that the consumer's decision is more offenly based on the point where the marginal cost is equal to the marginal benefit because they are not taking the impact of negative externalities.
If proper action is not taken by the government, negative externality will result in a market inefficiencies.
