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algol13
3 years ago
8

A fifteen-year adjustable-rate mortgage of $117,134.80 is being repaid with monthly payments of $988.45 based upon a nominal int

erest rate of 6% convertible monthly. Immediately after the 60th payment, the interest rate is increased to a nominal interest rate of 7.5% convertible monthly. The monthly payments remain at $988.45, and there will be an additional balloon payment at the end of the fifteen years to pay the outstanding loan balance. (a) Calculate the loan balance immediately after the 84th payment. (b) Calculate the amount of interest in the 84th payment. (c) Calculate the amount of the balloon payment.
Business
1 answer:
Sedbober [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Using an excel spreadsheet I prepared an amortization schedule. For the 61st payment, the interest rate is increased from 0.5% to 0.625% monthly.

(a) Calculate the loan balance immediately after the 84th payment.

  • $77,884.78

(b) Calculate the amount of interest in the 84th payment.

  • $489.90

(c) Calculate the amount of the balloon payment.

  • $12,168.43

As you can see, the interest amount for the 61st payment increases, while it had been decreasing previously.

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You own a portfolio that has four stocks: A, B, C, and D. The portfolio has 50% of your money in stock A, 10% in B, 15% in C, an
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

WB = BA(WA) + BB(WB) + BC (WC) + BD(WD)

               1.6 = 0.83(0.5) + 1.50(0.1) + 1.42(0.15) + BD(0.25)

               1.6 = 0.415 + 0.15 + 0.213 + 0.25BD

                1.6 = 0.778 + 0.25BD

             1.6-0.778 = 0.25BD

                 0.822  = 0.25BD

                     BD   = 0.822/0.25

                     BD = 3.288

Explanation: The question relates to Beta of a portfolio. The Beta of a portfolio is the aggregate of Beta of each stock multiplied by the weight of each stock. The Beta of stock D was not given, thus, it becomes the subject of the formula.

3 0
3 years ago
A stock is selling at $40, a 3-month put at $50 is selling for $11, a 3-month call at $50 is selling for $1, and the risk-free r
aalyn [17]

Answer:

$0.745

Explanation:

GIven that

Current stock price  S_o = $40

strike price  X = $50

time to expiry of option = 3 - month

put price option P _o = $11

call price option C_o = $1

and the risk-free rate r = 6%

The amount that can be made on the arbitrage can be evaluated as a function of the Put-call parity.

i.e For parity ;

C_o + (X \times e^{-rt} ) = P_o + S_o

1 + (50 \times e^{-(0.06 \times 0.25} ) = 11 + 40

1 + (50 \times 0.9851 ) = 51

1 + (49.255 ) = 51

50.255 = 51

the difference in both values above illustrates that there is no  parity taking place and the arbitrage estimation here = 51 - 50.255 = $0.745

3 0
3 years ago
What is the population of the world
Alenkasestr [34]
7,531,251,898 
and still counting !!!
7 0
3 years ago
Jillian has a low credit score, and she will not be able to pay the minimum balance on her credit card bill next month. What sho
AnnyKZ [126]
Contact the credit card company. Communication is key. As long as she does not have a habit of being late, they may offer her a grace period.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the point of difference between illegal gratuity and bribery scheme?a. Illegal gratuities are made before deals are appr
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

d. Illegal gratuities do not necessarily involve an intent to influence a business decision but rather to reward someone for making a favorable decision.

Explanation:

Bribery schemes are used in order to directly influence a business decision making by offering money or other benefits;  bribes may be accompanied by the use of actual or threatened force, fear, or economic duress. Illegal gratuities do not necessarily  involve that influence intent and can, sometimes, be dished out aiming to reward a person or company for a favorable decision.

Therefore, the answer is alternative d.

7 0
4 years ago
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