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AURORKA [14]
4 years ago
8

Suppose that only 20% of all drivers come to a complete stop at an intersection having flashing red lights in all directions whe

n no other cars are visible. What is the probability that, of 20 randomly chosen drivers coming to an intersection under these conditions, a. at most 6 will come to a complete stop?b. Exactly 6 will come to a complete stop?
c. At least 6 will come to a complete stop?
d. How many of the next 20 drivers do you expect to come to a complete stop?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Lina20 [59]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a) 91.33% probability that at most 6 will come to a complete stop

b) 10.91% probability that exactly 6 will come to a complete stop.

c) 19.58% probability that at least 6 will come to a complete stop

d) 4 of the next 20 drivers do you expect to come to a complete stop

Step-by-step explanation:

For each driver, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they will come to a complete stop, or they will not. The probability of a driver coming to a complete stop is independent of other drivers. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

20% of all drivers come to a complete stop at an intersection having flashing red lights in all directions when no other cars are visible.

This means that p = 0.2

20 drivers

This means that n = 20

a. at most 6 will come to a complete stop?

P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{20,0}.(0.2)^{0}.(0.8)^{20} = 0.0115

P(X = 1) = C_{20,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{19} = 0.0576

P(X = 2) = C_{20,2}.(0.2)^{2}.(0.8)^{18} = 0.1369

P(X = 3) = C_{20,3}.(0.2)^{3}.(0.8)^{17} = 0.2054

P(X = 4) = C_{20,4}.(0.2)^{4}.(0.8)^{16} = 0.2182

P(X = 5) = C_{20,5}.(0.2)^{5}.(0.8)^{15} = 0.1746

P(X = 6) = C_{20,6}.(0.2)^{6}.(0.8)^{14} = 0.1091

P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0115 + 0.0576 + 0.1369 + 0.2054 + 0.2182 + 0.1746 + 0.1091 = 0.9133

91.33% probability that at most 6 will come to a complete stop

b. Exactly 6 will come to a complete stop?

P(X = 6) = C_{20,6}.(0.2)^{6}.(0.8)^{14} = 0.1091

10.91% probability that exactly 6 will come to a complete stop.

c. At least 6 will come to a complete stop?

Either less than 6 will come to a complete stop, or at least 6 will. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X < 6) + P(X \geq 6) = 1

We want P(X \geq 6). So

P(X \geq 6) = 1 - P(X < 6)

In which

P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) = 0.0115 + 0.0576 + 0.1369 + 0.2054 + 0.2182 + 0.1746 = 0.8042

P(X \geq 6) = 1 - P(X < 6) = 1 - 0.8042 = 0.1958

19.58% probability that at least 6 will come to a complete stop

d. How many of the next 20 drivers do you expect to come to a complete stop?

The expected value of the binomial distribution is

E(X) = np = 20*0.2 = 4

4 of the next 20 drivers do you expect to come to a complete stop

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Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

Start by setting it up with the divisor 31 on the left side and the dividend 216 on the right side like this:

             

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

Step 2:

The divisor (31) goes into the first digit of the dividend (2), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

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Step 3:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (31 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

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      0    

Step 4:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (2 - 0 = 2) and write the answer below.

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     - 0    

       2    

Step 5:

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (1) like this:

       0    

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

Step 6:

The divisor (31) goes into the bottom number (21), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

Step 7:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (31 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

         0  

Step 8:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (21 - 0 = 21) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1  

Step 9:

Move down the last digit of the dividend (6) like this:

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1 6

Step 10:

The divisor (31) goes into the bottom number (216), 6 time(s). Therefore put 6 on top:

       0 0 6

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1 6

Step 11:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (31 x 6 = 186) and write the answer at the bottom:

       0 0 6

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

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Step 12:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (216 - 186 = 30) and write the answer at the bottom.

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 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

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     -   0  

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You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.

The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.

Therefore, the answer to 216 divided by 31 calculated using Long Division is:

6

30 Remainder

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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<u>Step 2: Evaluate</u>

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