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2 years ago

Which of the following statements regarding convertible term insurance is true?

1 answer:

8 0

Answer: The annual premium for the cash value coverage is lower if an original-age conversion is used than if an attained-age conversion is used.

Explanation:

A convertible insurance policy is a term that is related to life insurance as it can be changed to a permanent life insurance policy.

Of the options given, the option that is true is that the annual premium for the cash value coverage is lower if an original-age conversion is used than if an attained-age conversion is used.

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Which activity relates to judging the seriousness or gravity of a given problem?

yKpoI14uk [10]

B. Evaluation

Evaluating means to systematically determine somethings merits and significance, including the seriousness or gravity of a problem.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The Cole Beverage Company (CBC) has a soft drink product that has a constant annual demand of 3,600 cases per year. A case of th

skad [1K]

Answer:

a. 480

Explanation:

The computation of the economic order quantity is given below:

$EOQ = \sqrt{\frac{2\times annual \ demand \times ordering\ cost }{carrying \ cost}} \\\\= \sqrt{\frac{2\times 3600\times \$32}{\$1} }$

= 480 units

The carrying cost could be determined below:

= $4 × 25%

= $1

hence, the carrying cost is $1

Therefore the economic order quantity is 480

Thus, the correct option is a.

7 0

2 years ago

Jack corp. Has a profit margin of 5.1 percent, total asset turnover of 2.3, and roe of 19.64 percent. What is this firm's debt-e

anygoal [31]

Answer: Jack Corp's D/E ratio is 0.67.

We follow these steps to arrive at the answer:

We begin with the DuPont Identity for Return on Equity (RoE)

$RoE = Net Profit Margin * Asset turnover Ratio * Equity Multiplier$

Substituting the values from the question in the DuPont identity we get,

$0.1964 = 0.051 * 2.3 * Equity Multiplier$

$Equity Multiplier = \frac{0.1964}{0.051*2.3}$

$Equity Multiplier = 1.674339301
$

$Equity Multiplier = \frac{Total Assets }{Equity}$

So,

$\frac{1}{Equity multiplier} =\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}$

Substituting the value of equity multiplier in the formula above we get,

$\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} = 0.597250509$

Now,

$\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} + \frac{Debt}{Total Assets} =1$

So,

$\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - \frac{Equity}{Total Assets}$

$\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - 0.597250509
$

$\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 0.402749491
$

Now that we have the proportions of debt and equity to total assets, we can find the Debt Equity (D/E) ratio as follows:

$\frac{D}{E} = \frac{\frac{Debt}{Total Assets}}{\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}}$

Substituting the values we get,

$\frac{D}{E} = \frac{0.402749491
}{0.597250509
}$

$\frac{D}{E} = 0.674339301
$

3 0

3 years ago

The portfolio that contains the average return on a combination of market index with the same beta is often called _____________

elena-s [515]

The portfolio that contains the common return on a mixture of market index with the same beta is often known as protection market line.

<h3>Is safety market line the same as CAPM?</h3>

The safety market line (SML) is a visual representation of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). SML is a theoretical representation of the predicted returns of belongings primarily based on systematic, non-diversifiable risk.

<h3>How do you study a security market line?</h3>

The two-dimensional correlation between anticipated return and beta can be calculated via the CAPM formula and expressed graphically via a safety market line, or SML. Any protection plotted above the SML is interpreted as undervalued. A safety under the line is overvalued.

Learn more about security market line here:

<h3>brainly.com/question/15877803</h3><h3 /><h3>#SPJ4</h3>

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1 year ago

On December 31, 2018, the balance in Megan's Products Accounts Receivable was $680,000 and net credit sales amounted to $3,800,0

Andru [333]

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

a. Bad Debt Expense Dr, $36,800 ($40,000 – $3,200)

To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $36,800

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

For recording this we debited the bad debt expense as it increased the expenses and at the same time it reduced the assets so the allowance for doubtful accounts is credited

b. Bad Debt Expense Dr, $40,730 ($40,000 + $730)

To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $40,730

For recording this we debited the bad debt expense as it increased the expenses and at the same time it reduced the assets so the allowance for doubtful accounts is credited

7 0

3 years ago