Buckette co. owned 60% of shuvelle corp. and 40% of tayle corp., and shuvelle owned 35% of tayle. what is this pattern of owners
1 answer:
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Answer:
it will be a net loss of 560,000
It is better to produce at a loss of 60,000 than a loss of 620,000
That's because, the Division cover a good portion of their allocate fixed cost.
Explanation:
The fixed expense are allocate cost. Are unavoidable cost It will remain even if the division is dropped.
The sales and variable cost will be zero.
After posting the values, we calculate the differential income.
In this case it will be a loss for 560,000
Answer:<em>True cost = </em>
<em>= </em>
<em>= $ 13,669,821.2</em>
Explanation:
Given :
Debt-Equity ratio = 0.55
Flotation cost for new equity = 6%
Flotation cost for debt = 3 %
∴ To compute the weighted flotation cost , we'll use the following formula:
Weighted Flotation cost =
=
= 0.0387 + 0.0106
= 0.04934 or 4.93%
The true cost of building the new assembly line after taking flotation costs into account is evaluated using the following formula :
True cost =
=
= $ 13,669,821.2
Answer: B. In the short run, the typical firm increases its output and makes an above normal profit.
Explanation:
I have attached a graph to explain.
Originally the Perfectly Competitive Market is in a long run Equilibrium.
This means that at 5000 units the $20 selling price was as a result of Marginal Revenue being equal to Marginal Cost.
Now a sudden change in Demand has taken the price up which then forces the Marginal Revenue Curve upwards.
This will culminate with the Marginal Revenue Curve now intersecting the Marginal Cost curve at a higher point being point F so that profit can be maximised.
This higher level will thus lead to a higher output than 5000 units at point Q as the firm will increase output.
Notice that at that point the Marginal Revenue is higher than Average Total Cost meaning that an Above normal profit is being made.
Do react or comment if you need any clarification.
