yes there are written records of the first migration of humans to the americas
so thats true
Answer:
C.) While both the Ottoman Empire and Western European states relied heavily on forced conversions to expand and maintain their empires, the Ottoman Empire remained more religiously tolerant than the Western European empires.
Explanation:
I got this question right on the first try. Here's why I knew it was C. You would need to have some knowledge about the Ottoman Empire's role of religion. I don't know if it says in the passage, so if you do find it, then give me a heads up. Remember, how did the Ottoman Empire treat the minorities? Did they force persecution/conversion to Islam? Well, not really. Although they did develop the devshirme system, it was kinda of a force conversion because the children had to give up their Christian belief, but it was seen as an opportunity. They weren't punished, so answer A is not right. So they did practice religious tolerance. Also the Ottoman Empire tried to expand the empire to make it bigger as well. There wasn't any religious wars carried out the Ottoman Empire, and answer B does not make sense. Where in the passage does it say about those two empires having efforts of doing mass conversions. Look at Source 2. Sorry if this explanation is long, but I hope this helps :)
<span>The decline of feudalism was brought about by its own success. The system allowed for a new era of wealth and prosperity within Europe. However, this progress allowed people held back by the system to achieve a better standard of living. </span>During the feudalism era, serfs were at the mercy and will of their feudal lords. However in western Europe in the 12th and 13th centuries, many serfs were able to start growing their own personal wealth by engaging in trade. At the same time, many lords were beginning to have money issues and, therefore, needed to rent out their lands to tenant farmers. Serfs who had raised enough personal capital began to rent the land and, in effect, buy their freedom from serfdom.
As monarchical power in England and France increased, the power of the nobility decreased, which further led to the erosion of feudalism. In 1660, feudalism was outlawed in England. By the start of the French Revolution in 1789, feudalism ceased to exist in France. The lords in these countries who once ruled over serfs became the aristocracy. In Germany, the feudal system was replaced by small royal states until the 19th century and the unification of Prussia.
Answer:
three-fourths of the states must agree to change the constitution
