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KonstantinChe [14]
3 years ago
7

For which values of x is the function

Mathematics
1 answer:
max2010maxim [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

x = - 5, x = - 11

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

y = \frac{x+4}{(x+5)(x+11)}

The denominator cannot be zero as this would make y undefined.

Equating the denominator to zero and solving gives the values that x cannot be, that is

(x + 5)(x + 11) = 0

Equate each factor to zero and solve for x

x + 5 = 0 ⇒ x = - 5

x + 11 = 0 ⇒ x = - 11

Thus

x = - 11 and x = - 5 are excluded values.

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You may use a calculator to complete this test. if 1 egg and 1/3 cup of oil are needed for each bag of brownie mix, how many bag
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What is the unit rate for 6 pack soda for $7.96
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Which postulate or theorem, if any, could be used to prove the triangles congruent? If not
inysia [295]
Question 11a)

We are given side BC equals to side CE and angle CBA equals to angle CED
We also know that angle ACB equals to angle ECD are equal (opposite angles properties)

We have enough information to deduce that triangle ABC and triangle CDE are equal by postulate Angle-Side-Angle (ASA)

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Question 11b)

We are given side AB equal to side ED, side BC equals to side EF, and side AC equals to side DF
We have enough information to deduce that triangle ABC and triangle DEF congruent by postulate Side-Side-Side (SSS)

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Question 11c)

We are given side AC equals to side DF, angle ABC equals to angle DEF, and angle BAC equals to angle EDF

We have enough information to deduce that triangle ABC congruent to triangle DEF by postulate Angle-Side-Angle (ASA)

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Question 11d)

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Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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