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GrogVix [38]
3 years ago
7

The probability of winning a certain lottery is 1/77076 for people who play 908 times find the mean number of wins

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alex73 [517]3 years ago
4 0

The mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct

<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>

Given that , The probability of winning a certain lottery is \frac{1}{77076} for people who play 908 times

We have to find the mean number of wins

\text { The probability of winning a lottery }=\frac{1}{77076}

Assume that a procedure yields a binomial distribution with a trial repeated n times.

Use the binomial probability formula to find the probability of x successes given the probability p of success on a single trial.

n=908, \text { probability } \mathrm{p}=\frac{1}{77076}

\text { Then, binomial mean }=n \times p

\begin{array}{l}{\mu=908 \times \frac{1}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=\frac{908}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=0.01178}\end{array}

Hence, the mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct.

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108 x 100/75 = 108 x 1.25 = 144
108 is 75% of 144.
Hope this helps :)
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3 years ago
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stira [4]
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8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!!!
Arte-miy333 [17]
Part A: Yes this is a function because there are no repeated x values. Each x value points to exactly one y output. You can graph each point and the graph will not fail the vertical line test.

<span>----------------------------------------------</span>

Part B: Plug x = 6 into the f(x) function given to get
f(x) = 7x-15
f(6) = 7*6-15
f(6) = 42-15
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Now compare this with the table. According to the table, when x = 6, the value of y is 14. So the f(x) value is larger than the table value when x = 6

----------------------------------------------

Part C:

Replace f(x) with 6 and solve for x

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4 years ago
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8 0
3 years ago
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