Answer:
World Trade Organization
Explanation:
World Trade Organization is an outcome of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trades (GATT) and created global rules of trade between nations.
It was a multilateral treaty that was signed on the 30th of October 1947 in Geneva, Geneva Canton, Switzerland as a legal agreement among nations, with the aim of promoting international trade by eradication or reduction of trade barriers like tariffs or quotas.
Furthermore, the purpose was extended to include "substantial reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers and the elimination of preferences, on a reciprocal and mutually advantageous basis." which can be described in substance as trading with each other on the basis of comparative advantage.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": The demand for her haircuts is elastic.
Explanation:
Elasticity is a feature of certain goods and services that affect their quantity demanded after a change in prices. The price elasticity of demand is calculated by dividing the percentage of change in quantity demanded by the percentage of change in price. Results equal to or greater than one (1) imply the demand for that product is elastic while results lower than 1 means the demand is inelastic.
Thus<em>, if a salon owner realizes her revenue increased after decreasing the haircut prices, it implies the demand for haircuts is elastic.</em>
Answer:
The time line from minting to the first sale is:
0-192
$15 - $430,000
we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:
FV = PV(1 + r)t
Solving for r :
r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1
r = ($430,000/$15)1/192 - 1
r = .0549, or 5.49%
The time line from the first sale to the second sale is:
0-35
$430,000 - $4,582,500
we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Using the FV formula, that is:
FV = PV(1 + r)t
Solving for r:
r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1
r = ($4,582,500/$430,000)1/35 - 1
r = .0699, or 6.99%
The time line from minting to the second sale is:
0-227
$15 - $4,582,500
we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:
FV = PV(1 + r)t
Solving for r, we get:
r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1
r = ($4,582,500/$15)1/227 - 1
r = .0572, or 5.72%
Answer:
$660,000
Explanation:
WACC = [wD * kD * (1 - t)] + [wE * kE]
WACC = [(0.77 / 1.77)*6.12%* (1 - 0.40)] + [(1 / 1.77)*11.61%]
WACC = 1.60% + 6.56%
WACC = 8.16%
Present value of annuity = Annuity*[1-(1+interest rate)^-time period]/rate
Present value of annuity = $1.67*[1-(1.08156745763)^-9]/0.0816
Present value of annuity = $1.67*6.206374532
Present value of annuity = $10.36 million
NPV = Present value of inflows - Present value of outflows
NPV = $10.36 million - $9.7 million
NPV = $660,000
Operating cash flow = ($649,000 x .072) + $102,600 = $149,328. In financial accounting, operating cash flow or as called as OCF in which cash flow provided by operations, cash flow from operating activities or as called as CFO or free cash flow from operations or as called as FCFO bring up to the sum of cash a company produces from the revenues it brings in not including costs related with long-term investment on capital items.
