Answer:earnings per share for the year 20X1= $1.25 per share
earnings per share for the year 20X2 = 1.40
Explanation:
Earning per share is calculated as = Earning after taxes ÷ Shares outstanding
Therefore, earnings per share for the year 20X1.
= $430,000 ÷345,000 shares
= $1.25 per share
2. In the next year,there was a change in earnings after tax by 23 percent and an increase in shares by 34,000,
Therefore, we have earnings per share for the year 20X2 as
= ($430,000 × 1.23) ÷ ( 345,000 + 34,000)
=528,900/379000
=1.3955 rounded to 1.40
Answer: False
Explanation:
In both the first and second years, firms in country A undertook FDI projects of $20 billion in country B. This means that Country A had FDI outflows of $20 billion in those two years not inflows. Inflows are what happens when the FDI is coming into the country.
Country B on the other hand, was receiving money from country A. Country B therefore had FDI inflows of $20 billion in each of the two years and not outflows like Country A had.
Answer:
$92,400
Explanation:
Balance of the credit column on Chaco’s trial balance.
The Total credit column balance will be:
Accounts payable $25,200
Common Stock $21,200
Notes payable $46,000
We are going to add them up
Hence:
Total credit balance =
$25,200 + $21,200 + $46,000
Total credit balance = $92,400