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Anton [14]
3 years ago
10

In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who

is homozygous for this trait has a child with a woman who does not have freckles, which of the following best describes how their child would most likely appear?. . A.Their child would not have freckles if the father passes on the recessive allele.. . B.Their child would have freckles.. . C.Their child would not have freckles.. . D.Their child would have freckles since the mother is a carrier for freckles..
Biology
2 answers:
Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option B, Their child would have freckles

Explanation:

Given -

Dominant trait - Having freckles

Recessive trait - Not having freckles

Let the trait of having freckle be "F" and not having freckle be "f"

The cross is carried between the following parents with following genotype -

Man is homozygous  freckled - FF

Woman is not having freckles - ff

The cross between the above parents produce the following offspring -

FF x ff

Ff, Ff, Ff, Ff

All the offspring are heterozygous and possess freckles.

Hence, option B is correct.

Svetllana [295]3 years ago
7 0
The answer to the question above is letter B. In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominate gene and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If the freckled man is homozygous and the woman doesn't have freckles then the child would have freckles. 
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