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Ksivusya [100]
4 years ago
5

Prextos Corp., after incurring losses, decides to move its manufacturing unit to a foreign location where it would get labor at

cheaper rates. This way it plans to make profit. In this scenario, Prextos is planning to employ _____ to cut down its losses.
Business
1 answer:
Darya [45]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Offshoring

Explanation:

offshoring is the  process of  moving an aspect of a business process overseas with the intention of  reducing cost.

A firm can move its manufacturing process from its own parent country to another country (usually where the  labour rate and cost of raw materials is cheap compared to what it obtainable in its home country) in other to  reduce  its cost of production thereby increasing its added value.

From the above explanation, we can conclude that Prextos is planning to employ  Offshoring to cut down losses.

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The part of the money supply produced by the private banking system is called by the government or central bank is called?
-Dominant- [34]

Open Market Operation is the system in which the Central Bank supply money to the private banks.

Explanation:

The Reserve bank buy as well as sale the government securities so that it can control money supply. By selling and buying securities in a free market the amount of money is either expanded or contracted.

During inflation the price of the product rises , at that time the Reserve Bank purchase the securities so that money is not spend but in the other hand during deflation there is fall in the price as a result the Reserve Bank sale the securities so that purchase can be done.

8 0
3 years ago
How does the government help ensure fair prices for all citizens of a particular area served by one utility company?
grigory [225]

Answer:

The answer is by negotiating affordable rates with a supplier.

Explanation:

The government helps ensure fair prices for all citizens by negotiating affordable rates with a supplier.

5 0
3 years ago
Most home insurance policies cover jewelry for $1,000 and silverware for $2,500 unless items are covered with additional insuran
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

$ 3100 loss amount is not covered by insurance.

Explanation:

Amount not covered under insurance = Amount lost - Maximum Insurance Amount

  • For Jewellery  : Jewellery lost - maximum jewellery amount cover  = 3800 - 1000  = 2800
  • For Silverware : Silverware lost - maximum silverware amount cover  = 2800 - 2500 = 300

So, Total Amount loss not covered = Loss at jewellery + loss at silverware

= 2800 + 300 = $3100

6 0
3 years ago
According to McKinsey & Co, the root cause of companies’ inability to align their IT and their business goals is the lack of
vichka [17]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Many times management does not know a lot about information technology (IT) and that is not something necessarily bad because none can know all about everything. The problem is when someone doesn't know about something else but he/she is not willing to learn about that issue or is not willing to ask other people who know to teach them.

Many CEOs and board members are very successful and powerful people, and they do not like to admit the fact that they might need help to deal with some issues. IT is constantly changing and even if they knew about it 10 or 20 years ago, that knowledge is no good anymore.

The largest advances in IT have occurred in communications, our world is smaller every day. But communication by itself is only a tool, and a tool is only as good as the person that handles it. In order for a company to work properly, good communication must exist between all their units.

5 0
4 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Round your answers to the nearest cent. $200
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Normal:

$ 3,509.7470

$    563.7093

$ 2,000.00

Due:    

 $3,930.9167

 $   597.5319

 $ 2,000.00

Explanation:

We solve using the formula for common annuity and annuity-due on each case:

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate}(1+rate) = FV\\ (annuity-due)

<u>First:</u>

C 200.00

time 10

rate 0.12

200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12} = FV\\

200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12}(1+0.12) = FV\\

Normal:  $3,509.7470

Due:       $3,930.9167

<u>Second:</u>

100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} = FV\\

100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} (1+0.06)= FV\\

$563.7093

$597.5319

<u>Third:</u>

No interest so no time value of money the future value is the same as the sum of the receipts regardless of time or being paid at the beginning or ending.

1,000  + 1,000 = 2,000

4 0
3 years ago
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