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3 years ago

5

Is a power of

{x}^{ \frac{1}{2} } " alt=" {x}^{ \frac{1}{2} } " align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula">
the same as dividing by 2?

1 answer:

Savatey [412]3 years ago

3 0

No it is not. The 1/2 power is the equivalent to the square root, but it is not equivalent to dividing by 2.

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3 years ago

An unbalanced die is manufactured so that there is a 20% chance of rolling a “six." The die is rolled 6

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Answer:

Probability of rolling at least 4 sixes is 0.01696.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that an unbalanced die is manufactured so that there is a 20% chance of rolling a “six." The die is rolled 6 times.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

$P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r};x=0,1,2,3,.......$

where, n = number trials (samples) taken = 6 trials

r = number of success = at least 4

p = probability of success which in our question is probability of

rolling a “six", i.e; p = 0.20

<u><em>Let X = Number of sixes on a die</em></u>

So, X ~ Binom(n = 6, p = 0.20)

Now, Probability of rolling at least 4 sixes is given by = P(X $\geq$ 4)

P(X $\geq$ 4) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)

= $\binom{6}{4} \times 0.20^{4} \times (1-0.20)^{6-4}+\binom{6}{5} \times 0.20^{5} \times (1-0.20)^{6-5}+\binom{6}{6} \times 0.20^{6} \times (1-0.20)^{6-6}$

= $15 \times 0.20^{4} \times 0.80^{2}+6 \times 0.20^{5} \times 0.80^{1}+1 \times 0.20^{6} \times 0.80^{0}$

= 0.0154 + 0.00154 + 0.000064

= 0.01696

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Therefore, probability of rolling at least 4 sixes is 0.01696.

8 0

3 years ago