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joja [24]
3 years ago
13

533/25 as a decimal

Mathematics
1 answer:
mixer [17]3 years ago
6 0
21.32 hope this helped
You might be interested in
A water tank is in the shape of a cone.Its diameter is 50 meter and slant edge is also 50 meter.How much water it can store In i
Aneli [31]
To get the most accurate answer possible, we're going to have to go into some unsightly calculation, but bear with me here:

Assessing the situation:

Let's get a feel for the shape of the problem here: what step should we be aiming to get to by the end? We want to find out how long it will take, in minutes, for the tank to drain completely, given a drainage rate of 400 L/s. Let's name a few key variables we'll need to keep track of here:

V - the storage volume of our tank (in liters)
t - the amount of time it will take for the tank to drain (in minutes)

We're about ready to set up an expression using those variables, but first, we should address a subtlety: the question provides us with the drainage rate in liters per second. We want the answer expressed in liters per minute, so we'll have to make that conversion beforehand. Since one second is 1/60 of a minute, a drainage rate of 400 L/s becomes 400 · 60 = 24,000 L/min.

From here, we can set up our expression. We want to find out when the tank is completely drained - when the water volume is equal to 0. If we assume that it starts full with a water volume of V L, and we know that 24,000 L is drained - or subtracted - from that volume every minute, we can model our problem with the equation

V-24000t=0

To isolate t, we can take the following steps:

V-24000t=0\\ V=24000t\\ \frac{V}{24000}=t

So, all we need to do now to find t is find V. As it turns out, this is a pretty tall order. Let's begin:

Solving for V:

About units: all of our measurements for the cone-shaped tank have been provided for us in meters, which means that our calculations will produce a value for the volume in cubic meters. This is a problem, since our drainage rate is given to us in liters per second. To account for this, we should find the conversion rate between cubic meters and liters so we can use it to convert at the end.

It turns out that 1 cubic meter is equal to 1000 liters, which means that we'll need to multiply our result by 1000 to switch them to the correct units.

Down to business: We begin with the formula for the area of a cone,

V= \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2h

which is to say, 1/3 multiplied by the area of the circular base and the height of the cone. We don't know h yet, but we are given the diameter of the base: 50 m. To find the radius r, we divide that diameter in half to obtain r = 50/2 = 25 m. All that's left now is to find the height.

To find that, we'll use another piece of information we've been given: a slant edge of 50 m. Together with the height and the radius of the cone, we have a right triangle, with the slant edge as the hypotenuse and the height and radius as legs. Since we've been given the slant edge (50 m) and the radius (25 m), we can use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve for the height h:

h^2+25^2=50^2\\ h^2+625=2500\\ h^2=1875\\ h=\sqrt{1875}=\sqrt{625\cdot3}=25\sqrt{3}

With h=25\sqrt{3} and r=25, we're ready to solve for V:

V= \frac{1}{3} \pi(25)^2\cdot25\sqrt{3}\\ V= \frac{1}{3} \pi\cdot625\cdot25\sqrt{3}\\ V= \frac{1}{3} \pi\cdot15625\sqrt{3}\\\\ V= \frac{15625\sqrt{3}\pi}{3}

This gives us our volume in cubic meters. To convert it to liters, we multiply this monstrosity by 1000 to obtain:

\frac{15625\sqrt{3}\pi}{3}\cdot1000= \frac{15625000\sqrt{3}\pi}{3}

We're almost there.

Bringing it home:

Remember that formula for t we derived at the beginning? Let's revisit that. The number of minutes t that it will take for this tank to drain completely is:

t= \frac{V}{24000}

We have our V now, so let's do this:

t= \frac{\frac{15625000\sqrt{3}\pi}{3}}{24000} \\ t= \frac{15625000\sqrt{3}\pi}{3}\cdot \frac{1}{24000} \\ t=\frac{15625000\sqrt{3}\pi}{3\cdot24000}\\ t=\frac{15625\sqrt{3}\pi}{3\cdot24}\\ t=\frac{15625\sqrt{3}\pi}{72}\\ t\approx1180.86

So, it will take approximately 1180.86 minutes to completely drain the tank, which can hold approximately V= \frac{15625000\sqrt{3}\pi}{3}\approx 28340615.06 L of fluid.
5 0
3 years ago
How to draw to segments with the same midpoint
prisoha [69]
Just draw a line at the midpoint and a salon also if this helps OK
8 0
3 years ago
A large manufacturing firm tests job applicants who recently graduated from college. The test scores are normally distributed wi
anzhelika [568]

Answer:

lowest score a college graduate must earn to qualify for a responsible position is 578

correct option is D. 578

Step-by-step explanation:

given data

mean = 500

standard deviation = 50

distribution = 6 %

to find out

What is the lowest score a college graduate must earn to qualify for a responsible position

solution

we know that here Probability P that is express as

P ( Z > x ) = 100% - 6%      .....................1

so with the help of normal table

here value of Z is =  1.55 from cumulative probability 0.94

so by z score formula here x will be

x = z × standard deviation +  mean    ................2

so put here value

x = 1.55 × 50 + 500

x = 577.7387 ~ 578

so lowest score a college graduate must earn to qualify for a responsible position is 578

8 0
3 years ago
Plz helppp me right now
____ [38]

Answer:

c.

Step-by-step explanation:Because it's c.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help for this question please!!!!
Arisa [49]

Answer:

a. 35 degrees

b. 145 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Since the two base angles of this triangle are congruent, we can conclude that the triangle is <em>isosceles, </em>which means that the two base angles and sides are congruent.

Now, knowing that information, we can subtract 110 from 180 (the sum of all interior angles in a triangle) and we get 70. But this isn't our answer. This is the sum of both base angles. Since the base angles are congruent, we can divide the 70 by 2 to get the measure of ONE base angle, which is 35 degrees.

b. There are two approaches to solve this problem. I have worked both out.

1) We can use the Exterior Angle Theorem, which states that the sum of the interior angles is equal to the exterior angle. We can add 110 to 35, so we get 145 degrees as the measure of <1.

2) The second approach is supplementary angles. Since we see that one of the base angles and <1 is on the same line, we can subtract 35 from 180 to find the measure of <1 to get 145 degrees.

Either way you use, you get the correct answer. Hope this helped!

6 0
3 years ago
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