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Irina18 [472]
3 years ago
13

Broke Benjamin Co. has a bond outstanding that makes semiannual payments with a coupon rate of 5.6 percent. The bond sells for $

958.56 and matures in 20 years. The par value is $1,000. What is the YTM of the bond
Business
1 answer:
JulijaS [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is 5.96%

Explanation:

This is a semiannual paying coupon, meaning it makes payment twice a year.

N(Number of periods) = 40 years ( 20years x 2)

I/Y(Yield to maturity) = ?

PV(present value or market price) = $958.56

PMT( coupon payment) = $28 ( [5.6percent÷ 2] x $1,000)

FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.

We are using a Financial calculator for this.

N= 40; PV = -958.56 ; PMT = 28; FV= $1,000; CPT I/Y

I/Y = 2.98%. Please note that this is for semiannual.

Therefore, annual YTM = 5.96%(2.98% x 2).

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Each firm can produce at most one car. Suppose the market for electric cars is competitive. Why is the equilibrium price in this
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

Consumer surplus = (60000 - 40000)+ (90000 - 40000)+(40000 - 40000) = $70000

Producer surplus = (40000 - 20000)+(40000 - 30000)+ (40000 - 40000) = $30000

Social surplus = Consumer surplus +Producer Surplus= 70000 + 30000 = $100000

Consumer surplus = (Willingness to pay – Price)

Producer surplus = ( Price –Cost)

7 0
3 years ago
An economic contraction caused by a shift in aggregate demand causes prices to a. rise in the short run, and rise even more in t
raketka [301]

Answer:

c. fall in the short run, and fall even more in the long run.

Explanation:

The aggregate demand shifts to the left in recession or contractions, in consequence the level of prices falls. For this analysis we consider the shor-run supply curve with a positive slop.

As we know, the economy in the long run tends to equilibrium, where the the production level is fixed and equal to the potential of production of the economy. The initial reduction of prices incentives the consumption in the long run, stabilizing with the long run quantites in a minor level of prices.

In the attached image you can observe the process described previously.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following items are normally classified as current liabilities for a company that has a one-year operating cycle? (
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

The correct answer are D, E and F

Explanation:

Current liabilities are the short-term obligations of the company or the business which are due within the period of one year or within a operating cycle. An operating cycle states the cash conversion cycle, which is the time taken by the company to purchase the inventory and then convert the inventory into cash through sales.

The items which can be classified as Current Liabilities are portion of the long term note which is due in 1 month, wages payable due in 7 days and  portion of the long term note which is due in 10 months.

7 0
3 years ago
Manufacturing overhead has an underallocated balance of $12,400; raw materials inventory balance is $145,500; work in process in
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

$182,900

Explanation:

With regards to the above, after adjusting for the under allocated manufacturing overhead, cost of goods sold would be

= Under allocated balance of manufacturing overhead + cost of goods sold

= $ 12,400 + $170,500

= $182,900

7 0
3 years ago
Charging someone higher interest on a loan because they missed a payment in the past is:
posledela

Answer:D

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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