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Shalnov [3]
3 years ago
15

Why is the period between 600-1450 ce referred to as the dark ages? were they "dark" globally? if not, give examples?

History
1 answer:
n200080 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Between the time periods of 600-1450 Common Era, it was referred to as the dark ages in Europe because the cities and regions in Europe lack poetry, which was a dark experience. It was not really a dark globally, but only in the part of Europe wherein poetry vanished, but right after the dark ages, was the beginning of the modern age, which gave life to poetry and to music once more.

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The riot was suppressed, the problem is different. Who to trust now?
So the British thought and established direct control over India, thereby laying the foundation for British India. In 1858, Queen Victoria was crowned as Empress of India.
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Later, Britain and Russia will fight for Afghanistan, but no one will conquer it.
In Africa, there were conflicts with the Boers - former residents of the Cape Colony, who were driven out by the British. The Boers founded their own states, which the British tried to capture, but they succeeded only in 1902
In 1869, the Suez Canal was founded.
In the 1880s, Egypt came under British control (although not direct).
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3 years ago
The Clayton Act of 1914 was significant because: It explicitly exempts labor unions from the Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890. It i
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Explanation:

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