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Kaylis [27]
4 years ago
12

K owns a variable annuity with an assumed interest rate of 4%. If the actual performance of the separate account(s) is 5%, the e

ffect on this month's income benefit check will be such that it:
Business
1 answer:
pickupchik [31]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Since the actual performance of the separate account is actually higher than the assumed interest by 1 %, this means that K will be paid 1% more on the value of his/her annuity account.

Explanation:

An annuity account is a policy holder's investment account where the insurance company invests on behalf of the annuitant. The insurance company determine an assumed interest rate that will cover for the insurance company costs and the profit margin that will be paid to the annuitant periodically.

Annuity interest help investors plan for retirement income since the annuitant knows how much they expect to receive upon maturity of the policy. Knowing how to calculate the value of an annuity can also help investors to consider other investment options.

An assumed interest rate that is determined by the insurance company. This is the value of the annuity account and the annuitant should not be paid below the value of this rate. The actual interest rate is the actual performance of the investment in the market. If this rate increases, then the value of payment to be made to the annuitant also increases.

In our case, the actual performance of the separate account is actually higher than the assumed interest by 1 % this means that K will be paid 1% more on the value of his/her annuity account.

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Fletcher Company collected the following data regarding production of one of its products. Compute the direct materials quantity
Monica [59]

Answer:

$6,000 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Actual Quantity = 243,000 lbs

Standard Quantity:

= Actual finished units produced × Direct materials standard quantity per unit

= 40,000 units × 6 lbs

= 240,000 lbs

Standard Price = $2 per lb.

Hence,

Direct materials quantity variance:

= (Actual Quantity - Standard Quantity) × Standard Price

= (243,000 - 240,000) × $2

= $6,000 Unfavorable

4 0
3 years ago
What is the difference between the work of an auditor and finance manager? ​
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

Accountants and finance managers both work with clients and businesses to improve their finances. However, finance managers supervise all financial aspects of a business over a long period of time, while accountants focus on managing financial records and taxes.

7 0
3 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
On January 2, 2018, Howdy Doody Corporation purchased 15% of Ranger Corporation's common stock for $58,000. Ranger's net income
insens350 [35]

Answer:

Howdy Doody show in the 2018 income statement as income from this investment is $24225

Explanation:

given data

purchased = 15%

common stock = $58,000

net income 2018 = $15,000

net income 2019 = $58,000

dividend  = $61,500

fair value = $73,000

to find out

How much Howdy Doody show in the 2018 income statement as income from this investment

solution

we know that net income to be reported as income by investment is the sum of income from dividend + unrealised gain

so here

unrealised gain = increase in value of stock that is

= $73,000 - $58,000 = $15000      .............1

and

income from dividend is  = 15 % of $61,500

income from dividend = $9225       .................2

now add equation 1 and 2

Howdy doody show in 2018 income statement as income from this investment = Dividend revenue + Unrealized holding gain

income statement = $9225 + $15000

income statement = $24225

4 0
3 years ago
Melba purchases land from Adrian. Melba gives Adrian $225,000 in cash and agrees to pay Adrian an additional $400,000 one year l
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

  • Melba's adjusted basis for the land at the Acquisition date is $625000
  • Melba's adjusted basis for the land one year later is $645000

Explanation:

The adjusted basis for a property/land is the net cost of the property after adjusting for factors that might attract tax as related to the land

The adjusted basis for the land at the acquisition date is the net cost of the land at the acquisition date which will be ( $225000 + $400000 ) because that was the net cost of the Land at the date of acquisition before an agreement was later reached by Melba requiring him to pay $400000 plus an interest of 5%

Hence the adjusted basis for the land one year later will be

=  ( $225000 + $400000 ) + 5% of $400000

= ( $625000 ) + $20000

= $645000

6 0
3 years ago
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