1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
tankabanditka [31]
4 years ago
14

Why do companies practice price discrimination

Business
2 answers:
Scilla [17]4 years ago
5 0
Price discrimination is a strategy that companies use to charge different prices for the same goods or services to different costumers,companies use first degree to sell a product for the maximum price a consumer will pay.

Hope this helps!
timofeeve [1]4 years ago
3 0
Its almost the same thing as price gouging but not really

You might be interested in
Currently, a​ government's budget is balanced. The marginal propensity to consume is 0.80. The government has determined that ea
igor_vitrenko [27]

The amount of ​$25.00 billion will be the private investment spending that each​ $10 billion increase in government spending will crowd​ out.

<h3>What is the explanation on government expenditure?</h3>

When the government expenditure increased by​ $1 billion, the planned investment expenditure will falls by ​​$0.20 billion., hence, for each​ $1 billion increase in government​ spending, there is a net change in intial spending​ of $0.2 billion

Also, the aggregate demand curve will shift to the right by the net change in spending multiplied by the​ multiplier, which equals 1- MPC.

Hence, the net increase in AD due to the​ $1 billion increase in government expenditure is equals what is known as the net multiplier.

Therefore, the amount of ​$25.00 billion will be the private investment spending that each​ $10 billion increase in government spending will crowd​ out.

Read more about government expenditure

<em>brainly.com/question/14786578</em>

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
the law of demand implies that: consumers are not responsive to price changes. consumers will, all other things unchanged, buy m
serious [3.7K]

The law of demand implies that consumers will, all other things unchanged, buy more at lower prices.

One of the most fundamental ideas in economics is the law of demand. The law of demand explains how market economies distribute resources and set the prices of goods and services that we see in daily transactions by combining the law of supply. According to the law of demand, the quantity bought varies inversely with the price. In other words, the quantity demanded decreases as the price increases. Because of declining marginal utility, this happens. In other words, consumers utilise the initial units of an economic good they buy to fulfil their most pressing requirements first, and they use the subsequent units to fulfil progressively lower-valued goals.

Learn more about the law of demand here:

brainly.com/question/10782448

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
What effect does lowering the estimate for doubtful accounts have on the income statement and balance sheet? Do you believe Blai
podryga [215]

Answer no 1  

Bringing down the estimate for far fetched accounts makes the benefit bigger by paying off Bad Debt Expense and makes the Balance Sheet look better by exaggerating Assets. Since the contra-resource Allowance for Doubtful Accounts would be downplayed.  

Answer no 2  

This activity of change the stipends for far fetched accounts isn't inside the rights and zone of control of a director and is a moral infringement. No chief ought to have the option to transform anything inside the bookkeeping capacity. A supervisor ought to deal with the business, not the accounting for that business.

8 0
3 years ago
What is globalization?
vagabundo [1.1K]
Globalisation is the growing interconnectivity of the world through the use of trade, travel and media.
4 0
3 years ago
Cafe Italiano pays $70,000 for the trademark rights to a line of specialty sandwiches. After several years, sales for this line
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

the amount of the impairment loss is $50,000

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of the impairment loss is shown below:

Impairment loss = Purchase price of trade marks - Estimated fair value

= $70,000 - $20,000

= $50,000

Hence, the amount of the impairment loss is $50,000

The same should be considered and relevant

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Felicia, an elderly woman, does not speak or read english well. felicia is a recent immigrant to this country. a dishonest immig
    8·1 answer
  • Hope is desperate for the new designer purse that she saw while window shopping at her local mall. She knew every girl in school
    11·1 answer
  • Janette wants to take her family on a short vacation to Orlando, Florida. In addition to paying tax on the gasoline for the rent
    12·1 answer
  • Entonces cualquier pregunta
    10·2 answers
  • "A potential client is 81 years old and has asked his representative for recommendations of speculative "Dot Com" stocks. The cu
    9·1 answer
  • A corporation issued 5,900 shares of $10 par value common stock in exchange for some land with a market value of $88,000. The en
    8·1 answer
  • What are the solutions for cos2 x - cos2x = 0​
    12·1 answer
  • The accounting records of Dixon Company revealed the following costs: direct materials used, $300,000; direct labor, $450,000; m
    12·1 answer
  • Select the correct answer.
    12·2 answers
  • Jamison Company had sales revenue and operating expenses of $5,000,000 and $4,200,000, respectively, for the year just ended. If
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!