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jonny [76]
3 years ago
14

A cpa firm performs the annual audit of the leahy group, a private company. the client has asked the firm to perform a study to

determine whether the company would qualify for certain municipal tax credits and prepare the request. the firm will receive 15 percent of any tax credits that leahy obtains for the client as a result of the request but no fees if the request is denied. city officials do not perform a substantive review of each request for tax credits. would this fee arrangement be permitted under the aicpa code of professional conduct?
Business
1 answer:
nikitadnepr [17]3 years ago
7 0
No, this is not permitted under the AICPA Code of Conduct. The fee of the firm would have based<span> solely on the success of their task. Under the Code, it is allowed to received payment based on the work they have done but it is not the sole basis for its payment. In this situation, there is no agreed payment except for the success of their task so there will be an opportunity of fraud for the firm here in order to receive the fee. To compensate this problem, the Code did not allow this type of payment terms (the fee is based solely in the success of the tax credits they may earn).</span>
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After widespread press reports about the dangers of contracting "mad cow disease" by consuming beef from Canada, the likely econ
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

The demand curve will shift to the left (reduce)

Explanation:

Shift in demand results from change in other factors affecting demand except for price.

There are wide-spread reports of contacting mad cow disease by consuming beef from Canada. This will result in a general decrease in the quantity of beef demanded (shift in demand to the left). At all prices there will be less demand for Canadian beef.

This is illustrated in the attached diagram.

4 0
3 years ago
The Risk Premium is:
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": The difference between the expected YTM and the YTM of the comparable risk-free bond .

Explanation:

Risk Premium is a return that exceeds the risk-free rate of return that the investment is expected to yield. The risk premium for an asset takes the form of compensation for investors who tolerate the additional risk of an investment compared to the risk-free asset. In fact, investors expect to receive risk premiums because of the risk they are engaged in with certain investment instruments.

7 0
3 years ago
The projected capital budget of Kandell Corporation is $1,000,000, its target capital structure is 60% debt and 40% equity, and
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (e).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Capital budget = $1,000,000

Debt = 60%

Equity = 40%

Net income = $550,000

So, we can calculate the total dividend by using following formula:

Total dividend = net income - ( Equity × Capital budget )

= $550,000 - ( 40% × $1,000,000 )

= $550,000 - $400,000

= $150,000

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The risk free rate of return is 2.5% and the market risk premium is 8%. Rogue Transport has a beta of 2.2 and a standard deviati
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

20.1%

Explanation:

In capital asset prcing model (CAPM), cost of equity (or cost of retained earnings in this context) is calculated as below:

<em>Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta x (market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em>

Please note that <em>(market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em> is equal to <em>market risk premium</em>

Putting all the number together, we have:

Cost of equity/retained earnings = 2.5% + 2.2 x 8% = 20.1%

<em>Note: The dividend growth rate, tax rate & stock standard deviation is not relevant in answering the question.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
At Hodgson Corporation, direct materials are added at the beginning of the process and conversions costs are uniformly applied.
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

$2.25 per unit

Explanation:

The computation of the cost per equivalent is shown below:

= Total conversion cost ÷ total units completed

where,

Total conversion cost is

= Beginning work in process conversion cost + cost of conversion added

= $20,250 + 271,125

= 291,375

And, the number of units is

= Units completed + work in process ending inventory units × completion percentage

= 115,700 units + 23,000 units × 60%

= 115,700 + 13,800

= 129,500 units

So, the cost per equivalent unit for conversion cost is

= $291,375 ÷ 129,500 units

= $2.25 per unit

4 0
3 years ago
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