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jonny [76]
3 years ago
14

A cpa firm performs the annual audit of the leahy group, a private company. the client has asked the firm to perform a study to

determine whether the company would qualify for certain municipal tax credits and prepare the request. the firm will receive 15 percent of any tax credits that leahy obtains for the client as a result of the request but no fees if the request is denied. city officials do not perform a substantive review of each request for tax credits. would this fee arrangement be permitted under the aicpa code of professional conduct?
Business
1 answer:
nikitadnepr [17]3 years ago
7 0
No, this is not permitted under the AICPA Code of Conduct. The fee of the firm would have based<span> solely on the success of their task. Under the Code, it is allowed to received payment based on the work they have done but it is not the sole basis for its payment. In this situation, there is no agreed payment except for the success of their task so there will be an opportunity of fraud for the firm here in order to receive the fee. To compensate this problem, the Code did not allow this type of payment terms (the fee is based solely in the success of the tax credits they may earn).</span>
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The Display Ads connects with audiences through social media platforms and millions of other websites partnering with them.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

This ad works helps in the displaying of the advertisements and reach out many audiences. This can be divided into two types of networks such as Search network and the display networks. The business can place their advertisements in the form of texts in the search network. The business places the display advertisements in the display network so that it can reach wide range of audiences.

The advertisements in the form of images, text or videos can be displayed in the display network. The display network has wide range of websites encapsulated in it. It includes social media platforms etc for the purpose of displaying the advertisements.

3 0
3 years ago
The double-entry principle in the balance-of-payments
Sliva [168]

Answer:

The Current account is for goods and services.

The Financial account is for exchange of currencies and financial assets across countries.

Miguel, a U.S. resident, buys an HDTV set for  $2,500 and sends it to Mexico as a gift to his parents. <u>DEBIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. CREDIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. </u>

Miguel buys the good in the U.S. and then sends it so this falls under the current account alone.

Arielle, a French tourist, stays at a hotel in San  Francisco and pays $400 for it with her debit  card issued by a French bank. <u>DEBIT FINANCIAL ACCOUNT. CREDIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. </u>

The Financial account should be debited to show that currency is coming into the U.S. from outside the country and current account should be credited for services rendered.

A U.S. computer manufacturer purchases hard  drives from a Korean company, paying the funds  from its bank account in Korea. <u>DEBIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. CREDIT FINANCIAL ACCOUNT. </u>

Current account should be debited to reflect that goods are coming into the country but the financial account should be credited to show that currency is leaving the ownership of an American entity so it is passing out of American hands.

3 0
3 years ago
Airborne Airlines Inc. has a $1,000 par value bond outstanding with 20 years to maturity. The bond carries an annual interest pa
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

7.52%

Explanation:

First and foremost ,the yield to maturity on the old issue is computed using the rate formula in excel as calculated below:

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

the nper is the number of times the bond would pay annual coupon interest of $106,which is 20 times

pmt is the amount of annual coupon payment which is $106

pv is the current price of the bond at $860

fv is the face value of the bond at $1000

=rate(20,106,-860,1000)=12.54%

The yield to maturity on the new issue is 12.54%  as well

after-tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-t)

pretax cost of debt is yield to maturity of 12.54%

t is the tax rate of 40% or 0.4

after-tax cost of debt=12.54% *(1-0.4)=7.52%

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