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Studentka2010 [4]
3 years ago
6

You are considering two ways of financing a spring break vacation. You could put it on your credit card, at 15% APR, compounded

monthly, or borrow the money from your parents, who want an 8% interest payment every six months. Which is the lower rate
Business
1 answer:
Bess [88]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The lower rate is when you put it into your credit card.

Explanation:

Credit card: rate = (1 + 15%/12)^12 - 1

EAR = 16.08%

Parents loan = ( 1 + 8%)^2 - 1

EAR parents = 16.64%

Therefore, The lower rate is when you put it into your credit card.

You might be interested in
Johnson and Johnson targeted the adult market with its baby powder and shampoo. In _____, Johnson and Johnson increased the cons
andrey2020 [161]

In <u>modifying the market</u>, Johnson and Johnson increased the consumption of the current product.

<h3>What is market modification?</h3>

Market mofification can be defined as the way in the a manufaturer  target the market so as to attract potentials customers.

Most producer tend to make use of  market modication as a marketing strategy so as to have more advantage over other competitors by reaching their competitors  customers and to as well increase sales.

Therefore in <u>modifying the market</u>, Johnson and Johnson increased the consumption of the current product.

Learn more about market modification here:brainly.com/question/27093440

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
It is to say that Blue Hamster’s net inflows and outflows of cash at the end of Years 1 and 2 are equal to the company’s annual
Elanso [62]

It is <u>correct </u>to say that Blue Hamster’s net inflows and outflows of cash at the end of Years 1 and 2 are equal to the company’s annual contribution to retained earnings, $4,194,250 and $5,121,531, respectively. This is because <u>all of the items</u> reported in the income statement involve payments and receipts of cash.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Inflow of the company is the income of the company that it gets from the sale of the goods and the services that have been produced by the company by using raw material, labor and so on.

Outflow of the company is the expenditures and costs that the company makes on the production of the goods and services that are to be sold by the company to it's clients to earn revenue. The main purpose of the company is to increase it's inflows as much as possible.

6 0
3 years ago
Crane Company can produce and sell only one of the following two products: Oven Contribution Hours Required Margin Per Unit Muff
Makovka662 [10]

The question is reproduced in the table below for clarity                        

                               Oven                                  Contribution

                         Hours Required                 Margin Per Unit

Muffins                        0.2                                           $4

Coffee Cakes        0.3                                        $5

Answer:

Total contribution margin = $ 60,000.00

Explanation:

<em>When a business is faced with a problem of shortage of a resource which can be used to produced more than one product type, to maximize the use of the resource , the business should allocate it for production purpose in  such a way that it maximizes the contribution per unit of the scare resource.</em>

Therefore Crane Company should alocate the oven hours to maximise the contribution per unit of oven hour. This is done as follows:

Step 1

<em>Calculate he contribution per oven hour and rank the product</em>

                                                                      cont/hr                   ranking

Muffin                        $4/0.2 hour =              20                     <em> 1st</em>

Coffee cakes                 $5/0.3 hour=        16.67                      2nd

<em>Because Muffin generates the highest contribution per hour of Oven, Crane should allocate all the resource to it</em>

Step 2

<em>Calculate the Total contribution from the production of Muffin</em>

Total contribution margin = 20 per her × 3000

                                        = $ 60,000.00

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An increase in the current account deficit will place _______ pressure on the home currency value, other things equal.
Sindrei [870]

When there is an increase in the deficit of the current account, the pressure on the home currency value all things equal would be a downward pressure.

<h3>What happens when there is a current account deficit?</h3>

A current account deficit means that the country is earning less from exporting goods to other countries than it is losing from importing from other nations.

What this means is that more money is flowing out of the country than the money that is coming in. What this leads to a loss in currency value because it points to less demand for the home currency.

This is because the deficit would place a downward pressure on the local currency. On the upside, this decrease in currency value might spur exports which would lead to a better current account balance.

In conclusion, there will be downward pressure.

Find out more on the current account at brainly.com/question/22333470

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Nash Co. sells $435,000 of 12% bonds on June 1, 2020. The bonds pay interest on December 1 and June 1. The due date of the bonds
garri49 [273]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccccc}\\ &&$Carrying Value&$Cash&$Int. exp&$Amortization&$E.Carrying\\& 1&493574.88&26100&19743&6357&487217.88\\& 2&487217.88&26100&19488.72&6611.28&480606.6\\& 3&480606.6&26100&19224.26&6875.74&473730.86\\& 4&473730.86&26100&18949.23&7150.77&466580.09\\& 5&466580.09&26100&18663.2&7436.8&459143.29\\& 6&459143.29&26100&18365.73&7734.27&451409.02\\& 7&451409.02&26100&18056.36&8043.64&443365.38\\& 8&443365.38&26100&17734.62&8365.38&435000\\\end{array}\right]

<u>Journal entries:</u>

cash       493,574.88 debit

 bonds payable   435,000.00 credit

 premium on bp     58,574.88 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 19743

Amortization 6357

cash 26100

--to record Dec 31st, 2020--

Interest expense 19488.72

Amortization 6611.28

cash 26100

--to record June 30th, 2021--

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

--to record redemption--

premium on BP      4,813.04 debit

interest expense  13,456.96 debit

        cash                         18,270 credit

-- to record December 31st, 2021--

Explanation:

First, we solve for the proceeds from the bonds payable:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 26,100 (435,000 x 12% / 2)

time 8 ( 4 years x 2)

yield to maturity  0.04 ( 8% / 2)

26100 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-8} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $175,724.6412

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   435,000.00

time   8.00

rate  0.04

\frac{435000}{(1 + 0.04)^{8} } = PV  

PV   317,850.24

PV c $175,724.6412

PV m  $317,850.2392

Total $493,574.8804

We now build the amortization schedule.

We take this value, we multiply by the interest rate and then, solve for amortization and ending carrying value.

<u>To record the redemption:</u>

accrued interest:

435,000 x 0.12 x 4/12 (months from June to oct) = 17,400

premium:

480,606.6 - 435,000 = 45,606.6

proportional of premium:

45,606 / 435,000 x 130,500 = 13.681,98

we now solve for the gain/loss on redemption:

130,500 + 13,681.98 + 17,400 = 161.581,9 value redeem

                                      for cash 136,500

gain on redemption 25.081,98

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

Now, we solve for Dec 31st, 2021 entry.

bonds payable: 435,000 - 130,500 = 304,500

premium: 45,606 - 13,681.98 = 31.924,02

interest expense:

(304,500 + 31,924.02) x 0.04 = 13,456.96

cash outlay:

304,500 x 0.06 = 18,270

amortization 18,270 - 13,456.96 = 4,813.04

6 0
3 years ago
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