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ZanzabumX [31]
3 years ago
15

Thompson Company incurred research and development costs of $100,000 and legal fees of $30,000 to acquire a patent. The patent h

as a legal life of 20 years and a useful life of 10 years. What amount should Thompson record as Patent Amortization Expense in the first year?a. 0b. 3,000c. 6,500d. 13,000
Business
2 answers:
maria [59]3 years ago
8 0

Heya mate!!

Option 3000 is the answer to your question.

Hope it helps u dear✌️✌️

wariber [46]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

b. 3,000

Explanation:

The computation of the  Patent Amortization Expense in the first year is shown below:

= Legal fees to acquire a patent ÷ estimated useful life

= $30,000 ÷ 10 years

= $3,000

Only the legal expense would be amortized in a year.

And, the lesser period of legal life i.e 20 years and useful life i.e 10 years would be taken in the computation part. So, the lesser time period would be considered i.e useful life of 10 years

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lee company pays its employees on a graduated commission scale 6% on the first $40,000 sales 7% on sales from $40,001 to $80,000
Elina [12.6K]

Answer: c

Explanation:

Because it makes even more sense.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A firm’s income statement included the following data. The firm’s average tax rate was 20%. Cost of goods sold $ 9,000 Income ta
Semmy [17]

Answer:

a. $12,000

b. $32,000

c. $17,000

Explanation:

The computations are shown below:

a.  Net income = (Income tax paid ÷ Tax rate) – Income tax paid    

Net income = ($3,000 ÷  20%) - $3,000    

                   = $12,000

b.  Revenues = Cost of goods sold + Income tax paid + Administration expense + Interest paid + Depreciation + Net income

= $9,000 + $3,000 + $4,000 + $2,000 + $2,000 + $12,000

= $32,000

3. EBIT = Net income + Interest expense + Taxes

= $12,000 + $2,000 + $3,000

= $17,000

8 0
3 years ago
The expense recognition (matching) principle, as applied to bad debts, requires: Multiple Choice That bad debts not be written o
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

The use of the allowance method of accounting for bad debts.

Explanation:

We use the allowance method to match the expected ad debt with the sales or account receivables which generates.

As sales of a givne month can be declared uncollectible after several month using a direct method we are putting the burden of the uncollectible in another accounting period while leaving the one which did that sale untouched.

The allowance makesthe expense in the same time period thus, it follows the recognition principle.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jay sold three items of business equipment for a total of $300,000. None of the equipment was appraised to determine its value.
olasank [31]

Answer:

Consider the following calculations

Explanation:

Step 1. Given information.

Asset        Cost        Adjusted Basis

--------------------------------------------------

Skidder   230,000      40,000

Driller       120,000      60,000  

Platform  620,000        0

-------------------------------------------------

Total         970,000      100,000

Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.

Allocation for each asset =  value sold * (adjusted basis / total)

Gain on sale = Sales price - Adjusted basis amount

Step 3. Calculation and Step 4. Solution.

Sales price is allocated on the basis of adjusted value.

  • Skidder = 300.000 * 40.000/100.000 = 120.000

  • Driller = 300.000*60.000/100.000 = 180.000

  • Platform = 300.000*0/100.000 = 0

Gain on sale = Sales price - Adjusted basis amount

                        = 300.000 - (40.000 + 60.000 + 0)

                        = 200.000

6 0
3 years ago
If there are no excess reserves in the banking system and the Fed lowers the required reserve ratio, it follows that banks will
blagie [28]

Answer:

Excess reserves

Explanation:

Money supply in the economy is regulated by the central bank of Federal Reserve through various methods.

One of them is the use of reserve ratio.

Reserve ratio is the percentage of total deposit in a bank that commercial banks are required to keep aside and not use.

If there is no excess reserves and the Fed lowers required reserve ratio, it means banks will now have more money they can use to service customers.

The excess excess of the reserve can now the used to give out loans

3 0
2 years ago
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