Your first and second derivatives which are the velocity and the acceleration respectively are correct.
The particle has reverses direction when v(t) ≤ 0 so at interval 2 < t < 5 sec.
You can substitute now t = 2 for s(2) and a(2) for first changing direction. Also t = 5 for s(5) and a(5) for second changing direction.
The answer is A
hope this helps
Answer: Im pretty sure it is the equal sign with the line between it
pretty sure that is it tho
Hope that helped
Step-by-step explanation:
Ok well since it says the product of a number and 6 is 44 more than twice the number. and from this they got 6x=44+2x because it SAYS THE PRODUCT OF A NUMBER U DON'T KKNOW WHAT THE NUMBER IS SO U USE A VARIABLE WHICH IS 6X THEY GOT = 44 FROM THE PRODUCT AND 2X FROM MORE THAN TWICE THE NUMBER AND TWICE IS 2 AND U DON'T KNOW WHAT THE NUMBER IS SO ONCE AGAIN USE A VARIABLE
HOPE THIS HELPED
First, let's make these two into equations.
The first plan has an initial fee of $40 and costs an additional $0.16 per mile driven.
Our equation would then be
C = 40 + 0.16m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
The second plan has an initial fee of $51 and costs an additional $0.11 per mile driven.
So, the equation is
C = 51 + 0.11m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
Now, your question seems to be asking for one mileage for both, equalling one cost. I would go through all the steps I've taken to try and find this for you, but it would probably take hours to type out and read. In short, I'm not entirely sure that an answer like that is possible in this situation, simply because of the large difference in the initial fee of the two plans, along with the sparse common multiples between the two mileage costs.
