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Akimi4 [234]
4 years ago
12

During a presidential campaign, the incumbent argues that he should be reelected because GDP grew by 12 percent during his 4-yea

r term in office. You know that population grew by 4 percent over the period, and that the GDP deflator increased by 6 percent during the past 4 years. You should conclude that real GDP per person
A. grew by 2%B. grew by 6%C. grew by 8%D. grew by 12%
Business
1 answer:
KengaRu [80]4 years ago
8 0

Answer: The real GDP per person grew by 8%. Option C is the correct option

Explanation:

To calculate the real GDP per person, we have to calculate the real GDP growth rate in respect to the growth in population and deflator rate, then multiply it with the GDP growth.

GDP deflator = Nominal GDP ÷ Real GDP

The nominal GDP which includes the addition of population will grow by 4% since the population growth was 4%

GDP deflator increase by 6%

Therefore;

Real GDP = 4% ÷ 6% = 0.66667

THE REAL GDP PER PER PERSON

12% × 0.66667 = 8.00004%

Therefore the the real GDP per person is 8%, which is less than what he said.

You might be interested in
Due to ____, market forces should realign the cross exchange rate between two foreign currencies based on the spot exchange rate
aksik [14]

Answer:

Triangular Arbitrage

Explanation:

Arbitrage is the financial practice in which the prices of two or more different markets are taken advantage of to make profit as a result of tthe imbalance in the prices of the markets.

Also known as 3 point or cross currency arbitrage, Triangular arbitrage is the taking advantage/ exploiting of the pricing differences between 3 currencies on the foreign exchange market.

Simply put, triangular arbitrage is a situation in which the exchange rates between 3 currencies are not the same.

Triangular arbitrage is difficult to come by as it requires very advanced computer systems to detect and take advantage of.

I hope this helps.

6 0
3 years ago
In​ manufacturing, excess capacity can be used to A. do fewer​ setups, lengthen production​ runs, and drive down inventory costs
Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

In​ manufacturing, excess capacity can be used todo more​ setups, shorten production​ runs, and drive down inventory costs

Explanation:

Excess capacity refers to a situation where a firm is producing at a lower scale of output than it has been designed for. Context: It exists when marginal cost is less than average cost and it is still possible to decrease average (unit) cost by producing more goods and services

7 0
3 years ago
The goal of inventory management is to have the right ______, in the right _______, at the right _______.
krok68 [10]

Answer:

This problem has been solved!

See the answer

3. The goal of inventory management is to have the right ______, in the right _______, at the right _______.

A. product, range, season

B. price, place, supplier

C. price, range, season

D. product, place, time

4. A supply chain with a distributor has more product handling than one without a distributor. True or False?

5. Lead time is a way to measure the availability of inventory. True or False?

6. Expected profit is a direct measure of how well a company serves its customers. True or False?

7. Demand is modeled with a normal distribution that has a mean of 300 and a standard deviation of 50. What is the probability that demand is 400 or less?

A. 97.7%

B. 95.4%

C. 47.7%

D. 2.3%

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The most recent financial statements for Bello Co. are shown here: Income Statement Balance Sheet Sales $ 18,900 Current assets
allsm [11]

Answer:

9.69%

Explanation:

Calculate for the internal growth rate

First step is to calculate the ROA

ROA = $4,819/$38,200

ROA=.1262*100

ROA= 12.62%

Second step is to calculate the plowback ratio b

The plowback ratio, b= 1 – .30

b= .70

Now let calculate the Internal growth rate using this formula

Internal growth rate=(ROA × b)/[1 – (ROA × b)]

Let plug in the formula

Internal growth rate=[.1262(.70)]/[1 – .1262(.70)]

Internal growth rate=.0969*100

Internal growth rate= 9.69%

Therefore the internal growth rate will be 9.69%

3 0
3 years ago
An 85-year old risk averse investor is not happy about the minimal return she is earning on her current investments. She is stre
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

B. Reduce the Money Market Fund allocation by 30% (to 10%) and put the released funds in AAA-rated corporate bonds

Explanation:

First of all, since the investor is risk averse and cannot afford to lose money on any risky investment, she should change the mix of her investment portfolio but without increasing risks. Corporate bonds that are AAA-rated carry a very low risk and pay a little higher than money market funds. So a small decrease in money market fund assets and an increase in AAA-rated bonds should yield a slightly higher return.

Investing in equities would be too risky and US Treasuries pay even less interests than money market funds.

6 0
4 years ago
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