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Ymorist [56]
3 years ago
5

In a company where manufacturing overhead is applied based on machine hours, $2,600 of overhead has been applied, while actual o

verhead is $2,800. Is overhead underallocated or overallocated and by how much?
Business
1 answer:
xenn [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: $200 Underallocated

Explanation: Overhead costs refers to expenses incurred by a business organization which are not directly related to operating expenses such as cost of labor, equipments or materials. Overhead cost may include rent, cost of repair, and advertisement.

Overallocation or underallocation of manufacturing overhead is the difference between the applied manufacturing overhead and the actual manufacturing overhead.

Overallocation occurs when applied manufacturing overhead cost is greater than the actual manufacturing overhead incurred during a certain period.

Underallocation occurs when applied manufacturing overhead is less than the actual manufacturing overhead cost over a certain period.

In the exercise above,

Applied overhead - actual overhead

$2600 - $2800 = - $200

Overhead =$200 Underallocated,

Applied manufacturing overhead is less than the actual manufacturing overhead cost.

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Answer:

Net loss -$1,390

Explanation:

The computation of the net income is given below:

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On cash $1,530

ON credit $1,780

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Less: Expense    

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7 0
3 years ago
Consider a project where the initial cash flow is negative and where all subsequent cash flows are positive.
Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

b. NPV < 0

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

The decision rule is invest if IRR > required rate of return and don't invest if IRR < required rate of return.

The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

The decision rule is invest if NPV > 0 and don't invest otherwise.

The payback period measures how long it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from its cumulative cash flows.

There is no set acceptable pay back period. It is usually set at the discretion of firms.

The profitability index is the present value of a projects cash flows divided by the cost of investment.

The decision rule is invest if PI > 1 and don't if its otherwise.

For a project where the initial cash flow is negative and where all subsequent cash flows are positive, the NPV and IRR would agree.

From the question the IRR is less than the required rate of return which means the project shouldn't be embarked on. When the NPV is calculated, the same conclusion should be reached. So, the npv should be less than zero.

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
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Leni [432]

Answer:

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