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3 years ago

8

Can you explain the use of spanish endings.

1 answer:

Marat540 [252]3 years ago

3 0

Yes I can is what they would reply with.

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David has opened the can. David ha abierto la lata. David ha abrido la lata. David has abrido la lata. David has abierto la lata

andrew11 [14]

The correct answer is:

A. David ha abierto la lata.

"David ha abierto la lata", is the best Spanish equivalent to, "David has opened the can".

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Here is the answer

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PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! CORRECT ANSWERS ONLY PLEASE!!!

alexdok [17]

Hi there!

The answer would be A.

Hope this helps :)

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Read each situation and tell what each person wants (to eat or drink). Use words in parentheses in your response Answer using co

soldi70 [24.7K]

Hope this helped:)

1. “it’s cold” (me,drink)

2. “it’s hot” (we eat)

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2 years ago

If an infinitive ends in -ar, -er, or -ir, which of the following is also an infinitive? *

Shtirlitz [24]

Answer: I would probably say comer.

(Might be wrong though.)

Explanation:

This might be correct because comer is the only one that ends in -er.

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